ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2024
1. What is the therapeutic class of Valproate?
- A. Anticoagulant
- B. Antianxiety, benzodiazepines
- C. Anticonvulsant, vascular headache suppressant
- D. Mood stabilizer
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Valproate belongs to the therapeutic class of anticonvulsants. It is primarily used to manage seizures but is also effective in treating vascular headaches. Therefore, it is not classified as an anticoagulant, antianxiety medication, or mood stabilizer. Option A, anticoagulant, is incorrect as valproate does not have anticoagulant properties. Option B, antianxiety benzodiazepines, is incorrect as valproate is not primarily used to treat anxiety disorders with benzodiazepines. Option D, mood stabilizer, is incorrect as valproate is not classified as a mood stabilizer, although it can be used in some cases for mood disorders, its primary therapeutic class is anticonvulsant.
2. The nurse is analyzing laboratory values for the assigned clients. Which finding, based on the client's medical history, indicates the need for immediate follow-up?
- A. Client with chronic kidney disease and serum creatinine of 1.6 mg/dL
- B. Client with diabetes mellitus and a glycosylated hemoglobin A (HbA1c) of 7.0%
- C. Client with heart failure and a B-type natriuretic peptide (BNP) of 140 pg/mL
- D. Client who is male and has anemia with hemoglobin of 16.5 g/dL and hematocrit of 45%
Correct answer: B
Rationale: An HbA1c of 7.0% in a client with diabetes mellitus indicates poor long-term glucose control, necessitating immediate follow-up. Elevated HbA1c levels suggest a higher average blood sugar over the past 2-3 months, increasing the risk of complications associated with diabetes. Choices A, C, and D do not require immediate follow-up based solely on the provided information. A serum creatinine of 1.6 mg/dL in a client with chronic kidney disease, a BNP of 140 pg/mL in a client with heart failure, and hemoglobin of 16.5 g/dL and hematocrit of 45% in a male client with anemia are within acceptable ranges or do not indicate an urgent need for intervention.
3. What is the primary focus of a patient safety program?
- A. To reduce healthcare costs
- B. To improve clinical outcomes
- C. To enhance patient satisfaction
- D. To comply with regulatory standards
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The primary focus of a patient safety program is to enhance patient satisfaction by ensuring safe practices. While reducing healthcare costs and improving clinical outcomes are important aspects influenced by patient safety programs, the main goal is to prioritize patient well-being and satisfaction. Complying with regulatory standards is essential but not the primary focus; it is a means to achieve safe practices for the benefit of patients.
4. A client with heart failure is prescribed digoxin. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an adverse effect of digoxin?
- A. Constipation
- B. Blurred vision
- C. Nausea
- D. Headache
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Blurred vision is a common adverse effect of digoxin and can indicate toxicity. Monitoring for visual changes is essential to prevent serious complications in clients taking digoxin.
5. A healthcare provider is assessing a client with suspected post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD). Which of the following findings should the provider expect? Select one that does not apply.
- A. Flashbacks
- B. Avoidance of reminders of the trauma
- C. Increased arousal and hypervigilance
- D. Manic episodes
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) is characterized by various symptoms, including flashbacks, avoidance of reminders of the trauma, increased arousal, and hypervigilance. Additionally, individuals with PTSD often experience negative changes in thoughts and mood. Manic episodes, which are periods of abnormally elevated mood and energy, are not typically associated with PTSD. Therefore, the correct answer is 'Manic episodes.' Choices A, B, and C are all common findings in individuals with PTSD.
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