Nursing Elites

1. A client with Guillain-Barré syndrome is experiencing ascending paralysis. Which of the following interventions should the nurse prioritize?

• A. Monitor for signs of respiratory distress.
• B. Prepare the client for plasmapheresis.
• C. Administer analgesics for pain management.
• D. Initiate passive range-of-motion exercises.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Monitor for signs of respiratory distress. In Guillain-Barré syndrome, ascending paralysis can lead to respiratory muscle involvement, putting the client at risk for respiratory distress and failure. Prioritizing respiratory monitoring is crucial to ensure timely intervention if respiratory compromise occurs. Plasmapheresis (Choice B) may be indicated in some cases to remove harmful antibodies, but the priority in this situation is respiratory support. Administering analgesics (Choice C) for pain management and initiating passive range-of-motion exercises (Choice D) are important aspects of care but are not the priority when the client's respiratory status is at risk.

2. A 40-year-old man has been living with HIV for several years but experienced a significant decrease in his CD4+ levels a few months ago. The patient has just been diagnosed with Mycobacterium avium complex disease. The nurse should anticipate administering which of the following medications?

• A. Clarithromycin
• B. Pyrazinamide
• C. Rifapentine (Priftin)
• D. Azithromycin

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Clarithromycin. In the case of Mycobacterium avium complex disease, a common treatment regimen includes a macrolide antibiotic like clarithromycin or azithromycin in combination with other antimicrobials. Clarithromycin is a key component of the treatment due to its effectiveness against Mycobacterium avium complex. Choice B (Pyrazinamide) is not typically part of the standard treatment for this condition. Choice C (Rifapentine) is mainly used in tuberculosis treatment and is not a primary agent for Mycobacterium avium complex disease. Choice D (Azithromycin) is another suitable macrolide antibiotic for treating Mycobacterium avium complex disease but is not the medication typically used first-line.

3. After a 27-year-old woman with epilepsy had a generalized seizure, she feels tired and falls asleep. This is:

• A. an ominous sign.
• B. normal and termed the postictal period.
• C. a reflection of an underlying brain tumor.
• D. only worrisome if there are focal neurologic deficits after.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: normal and termed the postictal period. The postictal period is a common phase following a seizure where the individual may experience fatigue, confusion, or sleepiness. It is a normal part of the seizure event and does not necessarily indicate a serious issue. Choice A is incorrect because feeling tired and falling asleep after a seizure is not an ominous sign but rather a typical postictal symptom. Choice C is incorrect as there is no indication in the scenario provided that links the symptoms to an underlying brain tumor. Choice D is incorrect because the absence of focal neurologic deficits does not make the postictal period worrisome.

4. A patient is taking medroxyprogesterone acetate (Provera) for the treatment of endometriosis. What should the nurse teach the patient about this medication?

• A. Medroxyprogesterone should be taken with food to prevent nausea.
• B. Medroxyprogesterone should be taken at the same time each day to maintain consistent hormone levels.
• C. Medroxyprogesterone can be taken intermittently when symptoms worsen.
• D. Medroxyprogesterone should be stopped if side effects occur.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Medroxyprogesterone should be taken at the same time each day to maintain consistent hormone levels and effectiveness. Choice A is incorrect because medroxyprogesterone does not necessarily need to be taken with food. Choice C is incorrect as it is typically prescribed continuously rather than intermittently. Choice D is incorrect because patients should not stop the medication if side effects occur without consulting their healthcare provider.

5. A patient is receiving intravenous amphotericin. Which of the following assessments warrants the discontinuation of the antifungal agent?

• A. Sodium level of 138 mEq/L
• B. Hematocrit of 39%
• C. Blood urea nitrogen of 60 mg/dL
• D. AST level of 10 Unit/L

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Intravenous amphotericin can cause nephrotoxicity, leading to increased blood urea nitrogen levels. Elevated blood urea nitrogen (BUN) indicates impaired renal function, which is a known adverse effect of amphotericin. Therefore, a BUN level of 60 mg/dL warrants the discontinuation of the antifungal agent. The other options, such as a sodium level of 138 mEq/L, hematocrit of 39%, and AST level of 10 Unit/L, are within normal ranges and not indicative of the need to discontinue amphotericin therapy.

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