Nursing Elites

1. A charge nurse is teaching a group of newly licensed nurses about the correct use of restraints. Which of the following should the nurse include in the teaching?

• A. Placing a belt restraint on a school-age child who has seizures.
• B. Securing wrist restraints to the bed rails for an adolescent.
• C. Applying elbow immobilizers to an infant receiving cleft lip injury.
• D. Keeping the side rails of a toddler's crib elevated.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Keeping the side rails of a toddler's crib elevated is an appropriate use of restraints to prevent the child from falling, which is an essential safety measure. Placing a belt restraint on a school-age child with seizures (choice A) is not recommended as it can be dangerous during a seizure. Securing wrist restraints to the bed rails for an adolescent (choice B) may cause harm and should not be done routinely. Applying elbow immobilizers to an infant receiving a cleft lip injury (choice C) is not a standard practice for managing this condition and would not be appropriate.

2. A nurse is reviewing the laboratory results of a client who has hypokalemia. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

• A. Serum potassium 5.4 mEq/L
• B. Flat T waves
• C. Elevated ST segments
• D. Bradycardia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Flat T waves are a characteristic ECG finding in hypokalemia. Hypokalemia causes a decrease in serum potassium levels, leading to altered cardiac conduction. Flat T waves are associated with hypokalemia-induced cardiac dysrhythmias. Elevated ST segments are typically seen in conditions like myocardial infarction, not in hypokalemia. Bradycardia is not a typical manifestation of hypokalemia; instead, tachycardia may occur due to potassium imbalances affecting the heart's electrical activity.

3. A healthcare professional is reviewing admission prescriptions for a group of clients. Which of the following prescriptions should the healthcare professional identify as complete?

• A. Furosemide 20 mg BID.
• B. Aspirin 1 tablet daily.
• C. Nitroglycerin transdermal patch.
• D. Metoprolol 5 mg IV now.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because it provides the medication (Metoprolol), dosage (5 mg), route of administration (IV), and timing (now), making it a complete prescription. Choices A, B, and C lack either the route of administration or timing, making them incomplete prescriptions. For choice A, it lacks the route of administration, and for choices B and C, they lack the timing of administration.

4. What is the recommended dietary restriction for a patient with chronic kidney disease?

• A. Limit potassium intake
• B. Limit fluid intake
• C. Increase protein intake
• D. Increase carbohydrate intake

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to limit fluid intake for a patient with chronic kidney disease. This restriction helps manage fluid balance to prevent fluid overload. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Limiting potassium intake is essential for some patients with kidney disease, but it is not the primary dietary restriction. Increasing protein intake is usually not recommended due to the impaired kidney function in these patients. Increasing carbohydrate intake is also not a standard recommendation for patients with chronic kidney disease.

5. A nurse is caring for a client who has cirrhosis. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

• A. Decreased bilirubin levels
• B. Decreased prothrombin time
• C. Decreased albumin levels
• D. Increased prothrombin time

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In clients with cirrhosis, the liver is unable to produce clotting factors efficiently, leading to impaired clotting function. Therefore, an increased prothrombin time is expected in cirrhosis. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Decreased bilirubin levels are not typically seen in cirrhosis; prothrombin time is usually increased, not decreased; and albumin levels are often decreased in cirrhosis due to reduced synthetic liver function.

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