Nursing Elites

1. A 70-year-old patient is seen in the family practice clinic. Which of the following vaccines should be administered to prevent shingles?

• A. Zoster vaccine
• B. Haemophilus influenzae Type b (Hib) vaccine
• C. Human papillomavirus (HPV) vaccine
• D. Pneumococcal polyvalent vaccine

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Zoster vaccine. The Zoster vaccine is recommended for the prevention of shingles in individuals aged 50 years and older. Shingles is caused by the reactivation of the varicella-zoster virus, the same virus that causes chickenpox. The vaccine helps reduce the risk of developing shingles and decreases the severity and duration of the illness if it occurs. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect: Haemophilus influenzae Type b (Hib) vaccine is used to prevent infections caused by Haemophilus influenzae type b, Human papillomavirus (HPV) vaccine is used to prevent HPV infections that can lead to cervical cancer and other cancers, and Pneumococcal polyvalent vaccine is used to protect against infections caused by the bacterium Streptococcus pneumoniae.

2. A client with a history of rheumatic fever presents with signs of heart failure. What is the likely underlying cause?

• A. Infective endocarditis
• B. Coronary artery disease
• C. Mitral valve stenosis
• D. Aortic regurgitation

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Mitral valve stenosis. Rheumatic fever can lead to scarring and thickening of the heart valves, often affecting the mitral valve. This stenosis can impede blood flow from the left atrium to the left ventricle, eventually causing heart failure. Choice A, infective endocarditis, is an infection of the endocardium, the inner lining of the heart chambers and valves, and is not directly related to rheumatic fever. Choice B, coronary artery disease, involves the obstruction of coronary arteries supplying the heart muscle with blood, leading to ischemia and not typically associated with rheumatic fever. Choice D, aortic regurgitation, is the backflow of blood from the aorta to the left ventricle and is not a common consequence of rheumatic fever.

3. A college student has a TB test prior to starting the semester. The tuberculin test site is noted with a reddened, raised area. What condition will the student be diagnosed with if the chest radiograph is negative?

• A. Transmission
• B. Primary infection
• C. Latent tuberculosis
• D. Active tuberculosis

Correct answer: C

Rationale: If the chest radiograph is negative despite a positive tuberculin skin test, the student will be diagnosed with latent tuberculosis infection. Latent tuberculosis means the student has the TB bacteria in their body but does not feel sick and cannot spread the disease. Choice A, 'Transmission,' is incorrect as it refers to the spread of TB from person to person. Choice B, 'Primary infection,' is incorrect because primary infection occurs when a person is first infected with the TB bacteria. Choice D, 'Active tuberculosis,' is incorrect as this refers to the active form of the disease where the person feels sick and can spread TB to others.

4. A 45-year-old woman presents with fatigue, weight gain, and cold intolerance. Her thyroid function tests reveal low T3 and T4 levels and elevated TSH levels. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

• A. Hyperthyroidism
• B. Hypothyroidism
• C. Euthyroid sick syndrome
• D. Subclinical hyperthyroidism

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The scenario describes a 45-year-old woman with fatigue, weight gain, cold intolerance, low T3 and T4 levels, and elevated TSH levels, which are indicative of hypothyroidism. In hypothyroidism, there is decreased production of thyroid hormones (T3 and T4) leading to elevated TSH levels as the pituitary gland tries to stimulate the thyroid gland to produce more hormones. Therefore, the correct answer is hypothyroidism (Choice B). Choice A, Hyperthyroidism, is incorrect as the patient's symptoms and thyroid function tests point towards decreased thyroid hormone levels, which is characteristic of hypothyroidism, not hyperthyroidism. Choice C, Euthyroid sick syndrome, is incorrect because this condition typically presents with normal to low T3 and T4 levels in the setting of non-thyroid illness, unlike the elevated TSH levels observed in this case. Choice D, Subclinical hyperthyroidism, is also incorrect as the patient has low T3 and T4 levels, which is not consistent with hyperthyroidism, whether clinical or subclinical.

5. A male patient is receiving androgen therapy for hypogonadism. What laboratory tests should the nurse monitor during this therapy?

• A. Liver function tests
• B. Kidney function tests
• C. Prostate-specific antigen (PSA)
• D. Complete blood count (CBC)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: During androgen therapy for hypogonadism, it is important to monitor liver function tests. Androgens can affect the liver, potentially leading to liver dysfunction. Monitoring liver function tests helps in early detection of any liver abnormalities. Kidney function tests (Choice B) are not typically affected by androgen therapy. Prostate-specific antigen (PSA) levels (Choice C) may be monitored for conditions like prostate cancer, but it is not directly related to androgen therapy for hypogonadism. A complete blood count (CBC) (Choice D) may not show specific changes related to androgen therapy for hypogonadism.

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