ATI RN
ATI Pathophysiology Exam 2
1. A 70-year-old man has enjoyed good overall health for all of his adult life, but he has been experiencing urinary frequency and dribbling that has culminated in a diagnosis of benign prostatic hypertrophy (BPH). As a result, the patient has been prescribed finasteride (Proscar). When teaching the patient about the potential adverse effects of the drug, the nurse should ensure that he knows about the possibility of
- A. sexual dysfunction.
- B. urethral burning.
- C. kidney stones.
- D. visual disturbances.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct potential adverse effect of finasteride (Proscar) that the nurse should educate the patient about is sexual dysfunction. Finasteride is known to cause sexual side effects such as decreased libido, erectile dysfunction, and ejaculation disorders. Urethral burning, kidney stones, and visual disturbances are not commonly associated with finasteride use, making them incorrect choices for this scenario.
2. What type of drug would most likely be given to a patient following a myocardial infarction?
- A. antiemetic
- B. anticoagulant
- C. anticonvulsant
- D. antibiotic
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Anticoagulants are the most suitable choice for a patient following a myocardial infarction. These medications are essential in preventing further blood clots from forming in the arteries, reducing the risk of complications such as strokes or recurrent heart attacks. Antiemetics are used to control nausea and vomiting, not directly related to myocardial infarction. Anticonvulsants are used to manage seizures, not typically indicated after a heart attack. Antibiotics are prescribed to treat bacterial infections, not routinely given after a myocardial infarction.
3. What are the early signs of increased intracranial pressure (IICP)?
- A. Restlessness, irritability, and confusion
- B. Sudden onset of seizures
- C. Decreased heart rate and pupillary response
- D. Loss of consciousness
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Restlessness, irritability, and confusion are early signs of increased intracranial pressure (IICP). These signs indicate that the brain is starting to experience pressure, often due to conditions such as trauma, tumors, or hemorrhage. Sudden onset of seizures (choice B) is not typically an early sign of IICP but can occur later as the pressure increases. Decreased heart rate and pupillary response (choice C) are more indicative of late-stage IICP as the brainstem becomes compromised. Loss of consciousness (choice D) is a late sign of IICP when the pressure has significantly increased and is causing significant brain dysfunction.
4. A nurse is reviewing the facility's safety protocols concerning newborn abduction with the parent of a newborn. Which of the following statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. Staff will apply the identification band after the first bath.
- B. I will not make public announcements about my baby's birth.
- C. I can remove my baby's identification band as long as they are in my room.
- D. I can leave my baby in my room while walking in the hallway.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Not making public announcements about the baby's birth is crucial in preventing newborn abduction as it avoids exposing personal information. Choice A is incorrect because the identification band should be applied immediately after birth, not after the first bath. Choice C is incorrect as the baby's identification band should never be removed by the parent. Choice D is incorrect as parents should not leave their baby unattended in the room while they are outside the room.
5. A home health nurse is providing teaching to the family of a client who has a seizure disorder. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the teaching?
- A. Keep a padded tongue depressor near the bedside
- B. Place a pillow under the client's head during a seizure
- C. Administer diazepam intravenously at the onset of seizures
- D. Position the client on their side during a seizure
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct intervention for a client who has a seizure disorder is to position the client on their side during a seizure. This helps to prevent aspiration and ensures a patent airway. Keeping a padded tongue depressor near the bedside (Choice A) is not recommended as it can cause injury during a seizure. Placing a pillow under the client's head during a seizure (Choice B) is also not advised as it can obstruct the airway. Administering diazepam intravenously at the onset of seizures (Choice C) is not typically done at home without healthcare provider direction.
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