Nursing Elites

1. When the maternal immune system becomes sensitized against antigens expressed by the fetus, what type of immune reaction occurs?

• A. Autoimmune
• B. Anaphylaxis
• C. Alloimmune
• D. Allergic

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When the maternal immune system becomes sensitized against antigens expressed by the fetus, an alloimmune reaction occurs. In this situation, the mother's immune system recognizes the fetus as foreign due to differences in antigens, leading to an immune response against the fetus. Choice A, 'Autoimmune,' is incorrect because it refers to the immune system mistakenly attacking the body's own cells and tissues. Choice B, 'Anaphylaxis,' is not the correct answer as it is a severe allergic reaction that can be life-threatening. Choice D, 'Allergic,' is also incorrect as it refers to an immune response triggered by allergens, not antigens expressed by the fetus.

2. What specific instructions should the nurse provide to ensure proper administration of alendronate (Fosamax) for the treatment of osteoporosis?

• A. Take the medication with a full glass of water and remain upright for at least 30 minutes.
• B. Take the medication at bedtime to ensure absorption during sleep.
• C. Take the medication with milk to enhance calcium absorption.
• D. Take the medication with food to prevent gastrointestinal upset.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to take the medication with a full glass of water and remain upright for at least 30 minutes. This is important to prevent esophageal irritation and ensure proper absorption. Choice B is incorrect because alendronate should be taken in the morning on an empty stomach, at least 30 minutes before eating or drinking anything other than water. Choice C is incorrect because alendronate should not be taken with milk as it can interfere with its absorption. Choice D is incorrect because alendronate should be taken on an empty stomach, not with food.

3. A 57-year-old male presents to his primary care provider with a red face, hands, feet, ears, headache, and drowsiness. A blood smear reveals an increased number of erythrocytes, indicating:

• A. Leukemia
• B. Sideroblastic anemia
• C. Hemosiderosis
• D. Polycythemia vera

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In this case, the symptoms of a red face, hands, feet, ears, headache, and drowsiness along with an increased number of erythrocytes in the blood smear are indicative of polycythemia vera. This condition is characterized by the overproduction of red blood cells, leading to symptoms related to increased blood volume and viscosity. Leukemia (Choice A) is a cancer of the blood and bone marrow, but the presentation described here is more suggestive of polycythemia vera. Sideroblastic anemia (Choice B) is characterized by abnormal iron deposits in erythroblasts, not an increased number of erythrocytes. Hemosiderosis (Choice C) refers to abnormal accumulation of iron in the body, not an increase in red blood cells as seen in polycythemia vera.

4. Why is testosterone therapy prescribed for a 70-year-old man being treated for osteoporosis?

• A. To increase bone density
• B. To reduce the risk of fractures
• C. To enhance sexual performance
• D. To restore testosterone levels

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The primary reason for prescribing testosterone therapy for osteoporosis in men is to restore testosterone levels, not specifically to increase bone density. Testosterone plays a crucial role in maintaining bone density, so by restoring testosterone levels, it indirectly helps in maintaining bone density. Choices A and B are partially correct but do not address the primary reason for testosterone therapy in this context. Choice C is incorrect as the main focus of testosterone therapy in osteoporosis treatment is not related to enhancing sexual performance.

5. After a generalized seizure, a 27-year-old woman with epilepsy feels tired and falls asleep. This is:

• A. an ominous sign.
• B. normal and termed the postictal period.
• C. a reflection of an underlying brain tumor.
• D. only worrisome if there are focal neurologic deficits after.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Choice B is the correct answer. The postictal period is the phase following a seizure, characterized by symptoms like fatigue, confusion, and sleepiness. It is a normal part of the seizure process and does not necessarily indicate a serious underlying issue. Choice A is incorrect because feeling tired and falling asleep after a seizure is expected and not an ominous sign. Choice C is incorrect as there is no indication in the scenario provided to suggest an underlying brain tumor. Choice D is incorrect because the presence of focal neurologic deficits would indeed be concerning, but the postictal state itself is a common and expected occurrence post-seizure.

Similar Questions