Nursing Elites

1. A 67-year-old man is receiving androgen therapy for osteoporosis. What laboratory test should the nurse monitor during this therapy?

• A. Liver function tests
• B. Blood glucose levels
• C. Prostate-specific antigen (PSA)
• D. Cholesterol levels

Correct answer: A

Rationale: During androgen therapy, monitoring liver function tests is crucial to detect any signs of liver dysfunction. Androgens can potentially impact liver function, making it essential to monitor enzymes such as ALT and AST. While blood glucose levels and cholesterol levels are important parameters to monitor in certain situations, they are not the primary focus during androgen therapy for osteoporosis. Prostate-specific antigen (PSA) monitoring is more relevant in the context of prostate health and cancer screening, not specifically during androgen therapy for osteoporosis.

2. How can a colony-stimulating factor affect the patient's erythrocyte count?

• A. It stimulates the growth of red blood cells.
• B. It suppresses T-cell production.
• C. It inhibits protein synthesis.
• D. It stimulates antibody production.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Colony-stimulating factors are substances that stimulate the production of blood cells in the bone marrow. Erythrocytes are red blood cells, so a colony-stimulating factor would specifically stimulate the growth of red blood cells, leading to an increase in the patient's erythrocyte count. Choice B is incorrect because colony-stimulating factors do not suppress T-cell production. Choice C is incorrect because colony-stimulating factors do not inhibit protein synthesis. Choice D is incorrect because colony-stimulating factors do not stimulate antibody production; they primarily affect the production of blood cells.

3. In which patients would the manifestation of a headache be a sign of a serious underlying disorder?

• A. A 55-year-old man with new onset of headaches that are worse at night and reported mood swings according to his family
• B. A 30-year-old woman with a unilateral throbbing headache with photophobia and nausea
• C. A 60-year-old man with his head feeling full and throbbing and muscle aching around his neck and shoulders
• D. A 40-year-old woman who experiences food cravings, gets irritable, and then develops a pulsatile-like headache on the right side of her head

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In this scenario, the correct answer is the 55-year-old man with new onset headaches that worsen at night and reported mood swings according to his family. These symptoms, especially when combined with nighttime worsening and mood changes, could indicate a serious underlying disorder such as a brain tumor or increased intracranial pressure. Choice B is incorrect as the unilateral throbbing headache with photophobia and nausea is suggestive of migraine headaches, which are usually not associated with serious underlying disorders. Choice C describes symptoms that are more indicative of tension-type headaches rather than a serious underlying disorder. Choice D presents symptoms that are more likely related to hormonal changes and migraines rather than a serious underlying disorder.

4. What property is found in clients with metastatic cancer?

• A. Tumors that are well encapsulated
• B. Tumors with slow, stable growth
• C. Cells that are genetically stable
• D. Cells invading local tissue and overrunning neighboring cells

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Metastatic cancer is characterized by cells that invade local tissue and overrun neighboring cells. Therefore, the correct answer is D. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because metastatic cancer is associated with aggressive behavior where cells invade and spread to other parts of the body, rather than being well encapsulated, growing slowly, or being genetically stable.

5. Which of the following disorders is more likely associated with blood in stool?

• A. Gastroesophageal reflux
• B. Crohn's disease
• C. Irritable bowel syndrome
• D. Colon cancer

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Colon cancer is more likely associated with blood in stool due to the presence of bleeding from the tumor in the colon. Gastroesophageal reflux (Choice A) typically presents with heartburn and regurgitation but not blood in stool. Crohn's disease (Choice B) can cause gastrointestinal symptoms, but bloody stools are more commonly associated with ulcerative colitis. Irritable bowel syndrome (Choice C) is characterized by abdominal pain, bloating, and changes in bowel habits, but it does not typically cause blood in stool. Therefore, the correct answer is D, Colon cancer.

Similar Questions