ATI RN
ATI Pathophysiology Exam 2
1. When a client has their 'fight or flight' system activated, which below is a manifestation of that?
- A. Decreased blood pressure
- B. Decreased heart rate
- C. Decreased respiration rate
- D. Increased glucose levels
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, 'Increased glucose levels.' When the 'fight or flight' system is activated, the body releases glucose to provide energy for the impending response. This increase in glucose levels helps fuel the body's reaction to the perceived threat or stressor. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because during the 'fight or flight' response, blood pressure, heart rate, and respiration rate typically increase to prepare the body to confront or flee from the perceived danger.
2. A 34-year-old woman has presented to the clinic for the first time, and the nurse learns that she has been taking Depo Provera for the past 13 years. This aspect of the woman's medical history should prompt what assessment?
- A. Cardiac stress testing
- B. Renal ultrasound
- C. Bone density testing
- D. Evaluation of triglyceride levels
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is bone density testing (Choice C). Long-term use of Depo Provera, a hormonal contraceptive, is associated with decreased bone mineral density. Assessing bone density is crucial to monitor for potential osteoporosis. Cardiac stress testing (Choice A) is not indicated based on the medication history provided. Renal ultrasound (Choice B) and evaluation of triglyceride levels (Choice D) are not directly related to the use of Depo Provera.
3. Which of the following is a cause of edema?
- A. Decreased plasma proteins
- B. Hypotension
- C. Dehydration
- D. Polyuria
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Decreased plasma proteins. Edema can be caused by decreased plasma proteins, which reduce the osmotic pressure that keeps fluid in the blood vessels. Hypotension (choice B) is low blood pressure and is not a direct cause of edema. Dehydration (choice C) involves a lack of body fluid, but it is not a direct cause of edema. Polyuria (choice D) is excessive urination and not a direct cause of edema.
4. A 40-year-old man has been living with HIV for several years but experienced a significant decrease in his CD4+ levels a few months ago. The patient has just been diagnosed with Mycobacterium avium complex disease. The nurse should anticipate administering which of the following medications?
- A. Clarithromycin
- B. Pyrazinamide
- C. Rifapentine (Priftin)
- D. Azithromycin
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Clarithromycin. In the case of Mycobacterium avium complex disease, a common treatment regimen includes a macrolide antibiotic like clarithromycin or azithromycin in combination with other antimicrobials. Clarithromycin is a key component of the treatment due to its effectiveness against Mycobacterium avium complex. Choice B (Pyrazinamide) is not typically part of the standard treatment for this condition. Choice C (Rifapentine) is mainly used in tuberculosis treatment and is not a primary agent for Mycobacterium avium complex disease. Choice D (Azithromycin) is another suitable macrolide antibiotic for treating Mycobacterium avium complex disease but is not the medication typically used first-line.
5. In an adult patient suspected of having an androgen deficiency and considering treatment with testosterone, the use of testosterone would be most complicated by the presence of what preexisting health problem?
- A. Urinary incontinence
- B. BPH
- C. Chronic renal failure
- D. Type 2 diabetes
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is BPH (Benign Prostatic Hyperplasia). Testosterone therapy can worsen symptoms of BPH by potentially increasing prostate size and stimulating the growth of prostate tissue. This can lead to complications such as urinary retention and the need for further medical interventions. Urinary incontinence (choice A) can have various causes but is not directly related to testosterone therapy. Chronic renal failure (choice C) and Type 2 diabetes (choice D) are not typically contraindications for testosterone therapy in the context of androgen deficiency.
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