Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare provider has just administered a wrong medication to a client. Which of the following actions should the provider take next?

• A. No action is needed
• B. Report error to the provider
• C. Complete an institutional incident report
• D. Inform the client that the wrong medication was given

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In the scenario where a wrong medication has been administered, it is crucial for the healthcare provider to report the error to the provider. This action is essential to ensure that the provider is informed promptly, corrective measures are taken, and the client's well-being is safeguarded. Choice A is incorrect as taking no action could lead to serious consequences and compromise patient safety. Choice C, while important, should come after reporting the error to the provider. Choice D is not the immediate priority as the provider should first focus on addressing the error internally.

2. A nurse is preparing to administer ondansetron to a client. Which of the following therapeutic effects should the nurse expect from this medication?

• A. Decreased nausea
• B. Increased appetite
• C. Increased heart rate
• D. Relief of headache

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Decreased nausea. Ondansetron is classified as an antiemetic medication, which means it is used to relieve nausea and vomiting by blocking serotonin in the chemoreceptor trigger zone. Therefore, the nurse administering ondansetron should expect a therapeutic effect of decreased nausea. Choice B, increased appetite, is incorrect as ondansetron does not affect appetite. Choice C, increased heart rate, is incorrect as ondansetron does not have a direct effect on heart rate. Choice D, relief of headache, is also incorrect as the primary therapeutic effect of ondansetron is to alleviate nausea and vomiting, not headaches.

3. A client is prescribed spironolactone. Which of the following findings would indicate an adverse effect of this medication?

• A. Hyperkalemia
• B. Hypokalemia
• C. Hyponatremia
• D. Hypernatremia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Hyperkalemia is the correct answer as it is an adverse effect associated with spironolactone, a potassium-sparing diuretic. Spironolactone works by blocking the aldosterone receptor in the distal convoluted tubule, leading to decreased potassium excretion and potential hyperkalemia. Hypokalemia (choice B) and hyponatremia (choice C) are not typically associated with spironolactone use. Hypernatremia (choice D) is also an unlikely finding with spironolactone.

4. When administering amlodipine to a client with hypertension, what adverse effect should the nurse monitor for?

• A. Constipation
• B. Facial flushing
• C. Hypotension
• D. Jaundice

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, Hypotension. Amlodipine is a calcium channel blocker commonly used to treat hypertension. One of the main adverse effects of amlodipine is hypotension, leading to low blood pressure. The nurse should monitor the client for signs of hypotension such as dizziness, lightheadedness, or fainting. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because constipation, facial flushing, and jaundice are not typically associated with amlodipine administration.

5. A nurse is caring for a client prescribed digoxin. Which of the following should alert the nurse to possible digitalis toxicity?

• A. Anorexia and weakness
• B. Hyperactivity and hunger
• C. Tachycardia and increased urination
• D. Polyphagia and polydipsia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Anorexia and weakness. These symptoms are early indicators of potential digitalis toxicity. Anorexia refers to a loss of appetite, which can be a sign of toxicity, and weakness can indicate an issue with digoxin. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Hyperactivity and hunger, tachycardia and increased urination, as well as polyphagia and polydipsia are not typically associated with digitalis toxicity.

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