Nursing Elites

1. What is the probable cause recognized by the nurse when a 5-year-old boy is admitted to the hospital with acute glomerulonephritis?

• A. Recovery from German measles 2 months ago
• B. Dysuria since the previous night
• C. A history of allergy
• D. A sore throat 2 weeks ago

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Acute glomerulonephritis typically develops 1 to 3 weeks after a streptococcal infection, such as a sore throat, which triggers an allergic-type response that affects the glomeruli's function. This immune response leads to inflammation and damage to the glomeruli, resulting in acute glomerulonephritis.

2. When discussing the correction of hypospadias in a newborn, what does the nurse explain about this condition?

• A. No intervention is required as the defect will correct itself over time.
• B. Surgical repair of hypospadias is typically performed before 18 months of age.
• C. Corrective surgery is commonly postponed until preschool age.
• D. Repairing the defect does not increase the risk of testicular cancer.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Hypospadias is a congenital condition where the opening of the urethra is on the underside of the penis. Surgical repair is the primary treatment for hypospadias and is usually recommended to be done before 18 months of age. This timing is preferred for optimal cosmetic and functional outcomes. Waiting until preschool age for corrective surgery may increase the complexity of the procedure and potential complications. Correcting hypospadias does not impact the risk of testicular cancer.

3. The patient with bipolar disorder is being treated with lithium and has a new prescription for captopril for hypertension. The combination of these two drugs makes which assessment particularly important?

• A. Potassium level
• B. Lithium level
• C. Creatinine level
• D. Blood pressure

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When captopril, an ACE inhibitor, is combined with lithium, it can lead to lithium accumulation. Therefore, monitoring lithium levels is crucial to prevent toxicity. While ACE inhibitors like captopril can cause hyperkalemia, renal insufficiency, and hypotension, the risk of these effects is not increased by the combination of lithium and captopril.

4. During a vaso-occlusive crisis in sickle cell anemia, what action is crucial for a nurse to take?

• A. Administer meperidine for pain.
• B. Apply cold compresses to the child's joints.
• C. Limit the child's fluid intake.
• D. Maintain bed rest for the child.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: During a vaso-occlusive crisis in sickle cell anemia, maintaining bed rest is crucial to reduce oxygen consumption and alleviate pain. Movement can worsen the crisis by increasing sickling of red blood cells, leading to further tissue damage and pain. Bed rest helps to improve blood flow, reduce pain, and promote healing. Administering meperidine for pain (Choice A) is not recommended due to the risk of normeperidine accumulation and potential neurotoxicity. Applying cold compresses (Choice B) may cause vasoconstriction, worsening the vaso-occlusive crisis. Limiting fluid intake (Choice C) is not appropriate as adequate hydration is essential to prevent dehydration and maintain blood flow.

5. Which principle does not follow neuromaturational theory?

• A. The sequence and rate of motor development are consistent among infants
• B. Movement emerges from an interaction and cooperation of many systems
• C. Movement progresses from primitive reflexes to voluntary control
• D. Low-level skills are prerequisites for certain high-level skills

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Neuromaturational theory emphasizes that motor development progresses in a predictable sequence and rate, starting from primitive reflexes to voluntary control. It also states that low-level skills are foundational for higher-level skills. However, the theory does not support the idea that movement solely emerges from an interaction and cooperation of many systems, as it focuses more on the hierarchical development of motor skills.

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