Nursing Elites

1. Which statement is true concerning early intervention services for children 0-2 years?

• A. Only healthcare professionals can determine if the child is eligible for services
• B. Specific diagnoses are not required to qualify for services
• C. Families must not pay for services
• D. Services are provided to a diverse group of children and families

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Early intervention services aim to support a diverse group of children and families without the need for a specific diagnosis. These services are inclusive and provided to all eligible children and families, regardless of their background or particular condition.

2. A nurse assesses a male patient who has developed gynecomastia while receiving treatment for peptic ulcers. Which medication from the patient�s history should the nurse recognize as a contributing factor?

• A. Amoxicillin (Amoxil)
• B. Cimetidine (Tagamet)
• C. Metronidazole (Flagyl)
• D. Omeprazole (Prilosec)

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Cimetidine binds to androgen receptors, producing receptor blockade, which can cause enlarged breast tissue, reduced libido, and impotence. All these effects reverse when dosing stops. Amoxicillin, metronidazole, and omeprazole are not associated with gynecomastia.

3. A child receives a vaccine for MMR. Six hours after the injection, the child�s parent reports local soreness, erythema, lethargy, and a fever of 101�F to a nurse. Which action should the nurse take?

• A. Give instructions on relieving symptoms with acetaminophen
• B. Seek emergency help, because these symptoms are signs of anaphylactic reaction
• C. Tell the parent that a live vaccine will cause a mild case of measles
• D. Obtain and fill out a Vaccine Adverse Event Report form

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Low-grade fever, malaise, and muscle aches are common reactions. Acetaminophen usually alleviates these problems. MMR is a live vaccine but it is attenuated or completely avirulent and does not cause measles in healthy children, only immunocompromised children.

4. The healthcare provider is planning care for a patient receiving morphine sulfate via a patient-controlled analgesia pump. Which intervention may be required due to a potential adverse effect of this drug?

• A. Administering a cough suppressant
• B. Inserting a Foley catheter
• C. Administering an anti-diarrheal
• D. Monitoring urinary output

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Morphine can lead to urinary retention and urinary hesitancy. If a patient shows signs of bladder distention or inability to void, the healthcare provider should be notified, and urinary catheterization may be necessary. Administering a cough suppressant or an anti-diarrheal is not typically required to address adverse effects of morphine. Liver function tests (LFTs) are not directly related to the potential adverse effects of morphine on the urinary system.

5. While auscultating the lungs of an adolescent with asthma, what should the nurse identify the sound as?

• A. Biots respiration
• B. Chaney-Stokes respiration
• C. Tachypnea
• D. Bradypnea

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The nurse should identify the sound heard during auscultation as tachypnea, which is characterized by a rapid, regular breathing pattern. In the case of an adolescent with asthma, tachypnea can be indicative of increased work of breathing due to airway constriction and inflammation. Biots respiration (choice A) is characterized by an irregular pattern of breathing with periods of apnea. Chaney-Stokes respiration (choice B) is a pattern of breathing characterized by alternating periods of deep, rapid breathing followed by periods of apnea. Bradypnea (choice D) refers to an abnormally slow breathing rate, which is not typically associated with asthma exacerbation.

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