Nursing Elites

1. A 38-year-old patient’s vital signs at 8 a.m. are axillary temperature 99.6°F (37.6°C); pulse rate 88; respiratory rate 30. Which findings should be reported?

• A. Respiratory rate only
• B. Temperature only
• C. Pulse rate and temperature
• D. Temperature and respiratory rate

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Both an elevated temperature and an increased respiratory rate are abnormal vital signs that could indicate an underlying health issue. Reporting both of these findings is crucial to ensure appropriate evaluation and intervention if needed.

2. Which of the following is the correct meaning of CBR?

• A. Cardiac Board Room
• B. Complete Bathroom
• C. Complete Bed Rest
• D. Complete Board Room

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In medical terminology, 'CBR' stands for Complete Bed Rest. This term indicates the necessity for a patient to remain in bed without engaging in any physical activities beyond what is essential for daily living, to aid in the recovery process or to prevent further health complications. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they do not reflect the medical meaning of CBR.

3. When reviewing the prescriptions for a client with a pneumothorax, which of the following actions should the nurse perform first?

• A. Assess the client's pain.
• B. Obtain a large-bore IV needle for decompression.
• C. Administer lorazepam.
• D. Prepare for chest tube insertion.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In a client with a pneumothorax, the priority action for the nurse is to obtain a large-bore IV needle for decompression. This intervention helps to relieve the pressure in the pleural space, allowing the lung to re-expand. Prompt decompression is crucial in managing a tension pneumothorax, which can be life-threatening. Assessing pain, administering medication, and preparing for chest tube insertion are important, but they should follow the immediate intervention of decompression in a critical situation like a tension pneumothorax.

4. A healthcare professional is planning care for a client who has dysphagia and a new dietary prescription. Which of the following should the healthcare professional NOT include in the plan of care?

• A. Have suction equipment available for use
• B. Feed the client thickened liquids
• C. Place food on the unaffected side of the client's mouth
• D. Assign an assistive personnel to feed the client slowly

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When caring for a client with dysphagia, it is crucial to ensure safe feeding practices. Assigning an assistive personnel to feed the client slowly may not be appropriate as it can increase the risk of aspiration. Thickened liquids, having suction equipment available, and placing food on the unaffected side of the mouth are all appropriate measures to support a client with dysphagia in safe eating and drinking.

5. Which of the following patients is at greatest risk for developing pressure ulcers?

• A. An alert chronic arthritic patient treated with steroids and aspirin
• B. An 88-year-old incontinent patient with gastric cancer who is confined to bed at home
• C. An apathetic 63-year-old COPD patient receiving nasal oxygen via cannula
• D. A confused 78-year-old patient with congestive heart failure (CHF) who requires assistance to get out of bed

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. An elderly patient who is incontinent, bedridden, and suffering from a serious illness like gastric cancer is at the highest risk for developing pressure ulcers. Being bedridden and incontinent increases the pressure on certain areas of the body, leading to tissue damage and the development of pressure ulcers. Additionally, the patient's age and underlying health condition further contribute to their risk. It is crucial to identify and address such risk factors promptly to prevent the occurrence of pressure ulcers in vulnerable patients.

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