ATI RN
ATI Fundamentals Proctored Exam 2024
1. A 38-year-old patient’s vital signs at 8 a.m. are axillary temperature 99.6°F (37.6°C); pulse rate 88; respiratory rate 30. Which findings should be reported?
- A. Respiratory rate only
- B. Temperature only
- C. Pulse rate and temperature
- D. Temperature and respiratory rate
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Both an elevated temperature and an increased respiratory rate are abnormal vital signs that could indicate an underlying health issue. Reporting both of these findings is crucial to ensure appropriate evaluation and intervention if needed.
2. A new head nurse on a unit is distressed about the poor staffing on the 11 p.m. to 7 a.m. shift. What should she do?
- A. Complain to her fellow nurses
- B. Wait until she knows more about the unit
- C. Discuss the problem with her supervisor
- D. Inform the staff that they must volunteer to rotate
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In this scenario, the new head nurse should discuss the problem with her supervisor. This is the most appropriate action as the supervisor is in a position to address staffing concerns effectively and make necessary changes. Complaining to fellow nurses may not lead to a solution, waiting may exacerbate the issue, and demanding staff rotation without proper discussion is not a collaborative approach to resolving the problem.
3. A client in the emergency department is experiencing an acute asthma attack. Which assessment indicates an improvement in respiratory status?
- A. SaO2 95%
- B. Wheezing
- C. Retraction of sternal muscles
- D. Premature ventricular complexes (PVC's)
Correct answer: SaO2 95%
Rationale: An SaO2 of 95% indicates an improvement in the client's oxygen saturation, suggesting better respiratory status. In asthma exacerbation, a decrease in SaO2 levels would signal worsening respiratory distress. Wheezing, retraction of sternal muscles, and premature ventricular complexes are indicators of respiratory compromise and worsening respiratory status in acute asthma attacks. Monitoring SaO2 levels is crucial in assessing the effectiveness of interventions and guiding treatment decisions.
4. What is the appropriate needle gauge for intradermal injection?
- A. 20G
- B. 22G
- C. 25G
- D. 26G
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Intradermal injections require a very fine needle to be used to deliver the medication into the dermis layer of the skin. A 26G needle is typically used for intradermal injections as it is thin enough to penetrate the skin's surface and deposit the medication accurately.
5. A healthcare professional is planning care for a client following the insertion of a chest tube and drainage system. Which of the following should NOT be included in the plan of care?
- A. Encourage the client to cough every 2 hours.
- B. Check for continuous bubbling in the suction chamber.
- C. Strip the drainage tubing every 4 hours.
- D. Obtain a chest x-ray
Correct answer: Strip the drainage tubing every 4 hours.
Rationale: Stripping the drainage tubing is an outdated practice and can cause complications. Encouraging the client to cough helps with lung expansion, checking for continuous bubbling ensures proper functioning of the chest tube system, and obtaining a chest x-ray helps to assess the position of the chest tube and re-expansion of the lung. Therefore, stripping the drainage tubing every 4 hours should not be included in the plan of care.