ATI RN
ATI Fundamentals Proctored Exam 2023 Quizlet
1. The healthcare professional prepares to administer buccal medication. The medicine should be placed...
- A. On the client's skin
- B. Between the client's cheeks and gums
- C. Under the client's tongue
- D. On the client's conjunctiva
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Buccal medication is administered by placing it between the client's cheeks and gums. This route allows for the medication to be absorbed through the mucous membranes in the mouth, providing a rapid onset of action compared to oral ingestion. Placing the medication under the tongue (sublingual) allows for absorption through the sublingual mucosa, not the buccal mucosa. Placing medication on the skin or the conjunctiva is not appropriate for buccal administration.
2. The healthcare provider orders the administration of an ampicillin capsule TID p.o. The healthcare provider should give the medication...
- A. Three times a day orally
- B. Three times a day after meals
- C. Two times a day by mouth
- D. Two times a day before meals
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In medical abbreviations, 'TID' stands for 'ter in die,' which means three times a day, and 'p.o.' stands for 'per os,' which means orally. Therefore, the correct administration schedule for the ampicillin capsule is three times a day orally. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not align with the prescribed frequency or route of administration specified in the order.
3. A client has a new prescription for heparin therapy. Which of the following statements by the client should indicate an immediate concern for the nurse?
- A. ''I am allergic to morphine.''
- B. ''I take antacids several times a day.''
- C. ''I had a blood clot in my leg several years ago.''
- D. ''It hurts to take a deep breath.''
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is the statement 'I take antacids several times a day.' Antacids can alter the absorption of heparin, potentially affecting its effectiveness and increasing the risk of clot formation. This is a significant concern as it can impact the therapeutic outcome of heparin therapy. The other statements are not directly related to potential complications or interactions with heparin therapy.
4. A client experiencing dyspnea will receive continuous oxygen. Which oxygen device should be used to deliver a precise amount of oxygen?
- A. Non-rebreather mask
- B. Venturi mask
- C. Nasal cannula
- D. Simple face mask
Correct answer: B
Rationale: A Venturi mask is the most appropriate choice for delivering a precise amount of oxygen to a client with dyspnea. Unlike other oxygen delivery devices, the Venturi mask allows for accurate oxygen concentration delivery by controlling the amount of air entrained. This feature is crucial in ensuring the client receives the prescribed oxygen concentration, especially in cases where precise oxygen delivery is required.
5. A healthcare provider is caring for an adolescent who has sickle-cell anemia. Which of the following manifestations indicates acute chest syndrome and should be immediately reported to the provider?
- A. Substernal retractions
- B. Hematuria
- C. Temperature 37.9°C (100.2°F)
- D. Sneezing
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Substernal retractions are a concerning sign of respiratory distress and can indicate acute chest syndrome, a severe complication of sickle-cell anemia. It results from vaso-occlusion in the pulmonary vasculature, leading to impaired oxygenation. Prompt reporting of this symptom is crucial for early intervention to prevent further complications. Hematuria, a high temperature, and sneezing are not specific manifestations of acute chest syndrome and would not warrant immediate notification to the provider in this context.
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