Nursing Elites

1. A 38-year-old patient who has type 1 diabetes plans to swim laps daily at 1:00 PM. The clinic nurse will plan to teach the patient to

• A. check glucose levels before, during, and after swimming.
• B. delay eating the noon meal until after swimming.
• C. increase the morning dose of neutral protamine Hagedorn (NPH) insulin.
• D. time the morning insulin injection so that the peak occurs while swimming.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to teach the patient to check glucose levels before, during, and after swimming. This is important to monitor blood sugar levels and make adjustments as needed to prevent hypoglycemia or hyperglycemia. Delaying eating the noon meal until after swimming (Choice B) is not advisable as the patient needs proper nutrition both before and after exercise. Increasing the morning dose of NPH insulin (Choice C) should not be done without proper medical advice as it can lead to hypoglycemia. Timing the morning insulin injection to coincide with swimming (Choice D) is risky as the peak effect of insulin may lead to hypoglycemia during swimming.

2. An RN is writing reminders for good documentation for the nurses on her staff. The purpose is to ensure nursing documentation is legally credible. Which of the following is a recommendation she should include in the reminders?

• A. Use shortcuts in documentation.
• B. Only use approved abbreviations.
• C. Documentation should be subjective.
• D. Document after care is provided.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct recommendation the RN should include in the reminders is to 'Only use approved abbreviations.' Using shortcuts in documentation (choice A) may lead to errors or omissions, affecting the credibility of documentation. Documentation should be objective (choice C) rather than subjective to ensure accuracy and legal credibility. It is essential to document care promptly after providing it (choice D) to maintain the accuracy and completeness of patient records, but using approved abbreviations is a more specific recommendation to enhance legal credibility.

3. Which of the following best describes the role of a nurse preceptor?

• A. Supervisor of all nursing staff
• B. Mentor and educator for new nurses
• C. Director of nursing services
• D. Coordinator of patient care

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Mentor and educator for new nurses.' A nurse preceptor plays a crucial role in mentoring and educating new nurses. They provide guidance, support, and practical knowledge to help new nurses transition smoothly into their roles. While preceptors may have supervisory responsibilities during the orientation period, their primary focus is on supporting the professional development of new nurses, rather than supervising all nursing staff, directing nursing services, or coordinating patient care. Choice A is incorrect because a nurse preceptor does not supervise all nursing staff but focuses on new nurses. Choice C is incorrect as the role of a director of nursing services involves overall management and leadership of nursing services. Choice D is incorrect as a coordinator of patient care is responsible for organizing patient care activities, not specifically focused on mentoring new nurses.

4. Nurse Managers work with staff to educate them about ways to diffuse potentially violent situations. Which of the following diagnoses can staff expect to be more frequently associated with violence?

• A. Alcohol or drug withdrawal
• B. Anxiety
• C. Depression
• D. Confusion

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Alcohol or drug withdrawal is more frequently associated with violence as these conditions alter a person's inhibitions. Gilmore (2006) highlights that working with the public involves inherent risks and stressors. Individuals with head trauma, mental illnesses, and those withdrawing from substances are more likely to respond with violence. Anxiety, depression, and confusion do not typically lead to increased violent behavior compared to conditions involving substance withdrawal.

5. A nurse manager is preparing the budget for the year. The budgeted amounts have been set without regard to changes that may occur during the year. What type of budget is the manager preparing?

• A. Fixed budget
• B. Zero-based budget
• C. Variable budget
• D. Operating budget

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Fixed budget. A fixed budget is one where the budgeted amounts are set without considering changes that may occur during the year. This type of budget is based on the assumption that the business environment will remain stable. Choice B, Zero-based budget, involves setting the budget at zero and justifying all expenses. Choice C, Variable budget, adjusts based on changes in activity levels. Choice D, Operating budget, is a comprehensive projection of all revenue and expenses for the upcoming period.

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