ATI RN
ATI Oncology Questions
1. The nurse is monitoring a client for signs and symptoms related to superior vena cava syndrome. Which is an early sign of this oncological emergency?
- A. Cyanosis
- B. Arm edema
- C. Periorbital edema
- D. Mental status changes
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Superior vena cava syndrome (SVCS) occurs when the superior vena cava, the large vein that carries blood from the upper body to the heart, becomes compressed or obstructed, often by a tumor or enlarged lymph nodes, typically in cancers like lung cancer or lymphoma. The obstruction leads to increased venous pressure and reduced blood flow, resulting in swelling and edema in areas drained by the superior vena cava. Periorbital edema (swelling around the eyes) is one of the earliest signs of SVCS. This occurs because the impaired venous return causes fluid to accumulate in the soft tissues of the face, especially around the eyes. As the condition progresses, facial swelling can worsen, and other symptoms develop.
2. A clinic patient is being treated for polycythemia vera, and the nurse is providing health education. What practice should the nurse recommend to prevent the complications of this health problem?
- A. Avoiding natural sources of vitamin K
- B. Avoiding altitudes of 1500 feet (457 meters)
- C. Performing active range of motion exercises daily
- D. Avoiding tight and restrictive clothing on the legs
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Avoiding tight and restrictive clothing on the legs. Patients with polycythemia vera are at risk of deep vein thrombosis (DVT), so it is essential to avoid tight and restrictive clothing that can impede circulation. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because avoiding natural sources of vitamin K, altitudes of 1500 feet, and performing active range of motion exercises are not directly related to preventing complications of polycythemia vera.
3. In an adult patient, which assessment finding is considered diagnostic of Hodgkin lymphoma?
- A. Schwann cells
- B. Reed-Sternberg cells
- C. Lewy bodies
- D. Loops of Henle
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Reed-Sternberg cells. In Hodgkin lymphoma, the presence of Reed-Sternberg cells in lymph node biopsy is diagnostic. These cells are large, atypical cells originating from B-lymphocytes. They are distinctive in appearance and are key to diagnosing Hodgkin lymphoma. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because Schwann cells are related to nerve function, Lewy bodies are associated with Parkinson's disease, and Loops of Henle are structures in the kidney, none of which are specific to Hodgkin lymphoma.
4. A patient with acute myeloid leukemia (AML) is receiving induction therapy. What is the priority nursing intervention during this phase of treatment?
- A. Administering pain management
- B. Monitoring for signs of infection
- C. Providing emotional support
- D. Monitoring fluid balance
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Induction therapy for acute myeloid leukemia (AML) involves intensive chemotherapy aimed at achieving remission by eliminating a large number of cancerous cells. However, this aggressive treatment also severely reduces the production of healthy blood cells, including neutrophils, which leads to neutropenia (a dangerously low number of neutrophils). This makes the patient highly susceptible to infections, which can be life-threatening. Monitoring for signs of infection is critical during this phase, as infections may occur quickly and progress rapidly due to the compromised immune system. Early detection and prompt treatment of infections are vital to improving patient outcomes during induction therapy.
5. A patient with Hodgkin lymphoma is receiving radiation therapy. What side effect should the nurse monitor for that is most common with this type of treatment?
- A. Alopecia
- B. Fatigue
- C. Nausea
- D. Mucositis
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Mucositis is a common side effect of radiation therapy that should be closely monitored.
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