Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is monitoring a client for signs and symptoms related to superior vena cava syndrome. Which is an early sign of this oncological emergency?

• A. Cyanosis
• B. Arm edema
• C. Periorbital edema
• D. Mental status changes

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Superior vena cava syndrome (SVCS) occurs when the superior vena cava, the large vein that carries blood from the upper body to the heart, becomes compressed or obstructed, often by a tumor or enlarged lymph nodes, typically in cancers like lung cancer or lymphoma. The obstruction leads to increased venous pressure and reduced blood flow, resulting in swelling and edema in areas drained by the superior vena cava. Periorbital edema (swelling around the eyes) is one of the earliest signs of SVCS. This occurs because the impaired venous return causes fluid to accumulate in the soft tissues of the face, especially around the eyes. As the condition progresses, facial swelling can worsen, and other symptoms develop.

2. An adult patient has presented to the health clinic with a complaint of a firm, painless cervical lymph node. The patient denies any recent infectious diseases. What is the nurse's most appropriate response to the patient's complaint?

• A. Call 911.
• B. Promptly refer the patient for medical assessment.
• C. Facilitate a radiograph of the patient's neck and have the results forwarded to the patient's primary care provider.
• D. Encourage the patient to track the size of the lymph node and seek care in 1 week.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The most appropriate response for a patient presenting with a firm, painless cervical lymph node and denying recent infectious diseases is to promptly refer the patient for medical assessment. This is crucial to rule out serious underlying conditions such as malignancy or other concerning causes. Calling 911 is not necessary in this situation as it is not an emergency. Ordering a radiograph may not be the most immediate or appropriate action, as further evaluation by a healthcare provider is needed first. Encouraging the patient to wait and track the lymph node for a week is not advisable when a potential serious condition needs to be ruled out promptly.

3. A client is admitted with superior vena cava syndrome. What action by the nurse is most appropriate?

• A. Administer a dose of allopurinol.
• B. Assess the client’s serum potassium level.
• C. Gently inquire about advance directives.
• D. Prepare the client for emergency surgery.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to gently inquire about advance directives. Superior vena cava syndrome is often a late-stage manifestation, indicating a serious condition. Discussing advance directives with the client is crucial to ensure their wishes are known in case of deterioration. Administering allopurinol (Choice A) is not indicated for superior vena cava syndrome. Assessing the client’s serum potassium level (Choice B) is not the priority when managing this syndrome. Emergency surgery (Choice D) is not typically the initial treatment for superior vena cava syndrome.

4. The nurse is teaching a client about the risk factors associated with colorectal cancer. The nurse determines that further teaching is necessary related to colorectal cancer if the client identifies which item as an associated risk factor?

• A. Age younger than 50 years
• B. History of colorectal polyps
• C. Family history of colorectal cancer
• D. Chronic inflammatory bowel disease

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Age younger than 50 years. Colorectal cancer is more commonly diagnosed in individuals over the age of 50, so being younger than 50 is not typically considered a significant risk factor. Choice B, history of colorectal polyps, is a known risk factor as polyps can develop into cancer over time. Choice C, family history of colorectal cancer, is a well-established risk factor due to genetic predisposition. Choice D, chronic inflammatory bowel disease, such as Crohn's disease or ulcerative colitis, increases the risk of developing colorectal cancer. Therefore, the incorrect choice is A as age younger than 50 years is not a common risk factor for colorectal cancer.

5. Nurse Farah is caring for a client following a mastectomy. Which assessment finding indicates that the client is experiencing a complication related to the surgery?

• A. Pain at the incision site
• B. Arm edema on the operative side
• C. Sanguineous drainage in the Jackson-Pratt drain
• D. Complaints of decreased sensation near the operative site

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Arm edema on the operative side (lymphedema) is a known complication after a mastectomy. This can indicate impaired lymphatic drainage, leading to fluid accumulation in the arm. Pain at the incision site is expected postoperatively and may not necessarily indicate a complication. Sanguineous drainage in the Jackson-Pratt drain is a common finding in the immediate postoperative period. Complaints of decreased sensation near the operative site could be related to nerve damage or surgical manipulation, but it is not a typical complication after a mastectomy.

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