ATI RN
ATI Oncology Questions
1. The nurse is monitoring a client for signs and symptoms related to superior vena cava syndrome. Which is an early sign of this oncological emergency?
- A. Cyanosis
- B. Arm edema
- C. Periorbital edema
- D. Mental status changes
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Superior vena cava syndrome (SVCS) occurs when the superior vena cava, the large vein that carries blood from the upper body to the heart, becomes compressed or obstructed, often by a tumor or enlarged lymph nodes, typically in cancers like lung cancer or lymphoma. The obstruction leads to increased venous pressure and reduced blood flow, resulting in swelling and edema in areas drained by the superior vena cava. Periorbital edema (swelling around the eyes) is one of the earliest signs of SVCS. This occurs because the impaired venous return causes fluid to accumulate in the soft tissues of the face, especially around the eyes. As the condition progresses, facial swelling can worsen, and other symptoms develop.
2. Which of the following is a correct statement by the nurse to a patient under radiation therapy?
- A. Brachytherapy can be performed by a pregnant nurse.
- B. Teletherapy makes the patient radioactive.
- C. Brachytherapy is an internal radiation therapy.
- D. Teletherapy requires proper disposal of feces since it can be a source of radiation.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Brachytherapy is an internal radiation therapy.' Brachytherapy involves the placement of radioactive sources inside or next to the area requiring treatment. This differs from teletherapy, which is external radiation therapy. Choice A is incorrect as pregnant individuals should avoid exposure to radiation. Choice B is incorrect because teletherapy does not make the patient radioactive; the radiation source is external. Choice D is incorrect as feces is not a significant source of radiation during teletherapy.
3. A client is admitted with superior vena cava syndrome. What action by the nurse is most appropriate?
- A. Administer a dose of allopurinol.
- B. Assess the client’s serum potassium level.
- C. Gently inquire about advance directives.
- D. Prepare the client for emergency surgery.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is to gently inquire about advance directives. Superior vena cava syndrome is often a late-stage manifestation, indicating a serious condition. Discussing advance directives with the client is crucial to ensure their wishes are known in case of deterioration. Administering allopurinol (Choice A) is not indicated for superior vena cava syndrome. Assessing the client’s serum potassium level (Choice B) is not the priority when managing this syndrome. Emergency surgery (Choice D) is not typically the initial treatment for superior vena cava syndrome.
4. A patient was admitted with gastric cancer. The patient asks the nurse about things to expect while receiving chemotherapy. Which of the following statements of the nurse shows incompetence?
- A. You can expect hair loss, but do not worry it will grow back immediately
- B. You may be infected easily, so avoid going to overpopulated places
- C. We may need to monitor your uric acid levels
- D. We may need to monitor your RBCs
Correct answer: A
Rationale: While hair loss (alopecia) is a common side effect of chemotherapy due to the damage to rapidly dividing hair follicle cells, the statement that hair will grow back "immediately" is inaccurate and misleading. Hair regrowth after chemotherapy takes time, typically starting a few weeks to months after treatment ends. The new hair may also have a different texture or color initially. Therefore, this statement indicates a lack of understanding and could give the patient unrealistic expectations, which is why it shows incompetence.
5. An adult patient has presented to the health clinic with a complaint of a firm, painless cervical lymph node. The patient denies any recent infectious diseases. What is the nurse's most appropriate response to the patient's complaint?
- A. Call 911.
- B. Promptly refer the patient for medical assessment.
- C. Facilitate a radiograph of the patient's neck and have the results forwarded to the patient's primary care provider.
- D. Encourage the patient to track the size of the lymph node and seek care in 1 week.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The most appropriate response for a patient presenting with a firm, painless cervical lymph node and denying recent infectious diseases is to promptly refer the patient for medical assessment. This is crucial to rule out serious underlying conditions such as malignancy or other concerning causes. Calling 911 is not necessary in this situation as it is not an emergency. Ordering a radiograph may not be the most immediate or appropriate action, as further evaluation by a healthcare provider is needed first. Encouraging the patient to wait and track the lymph node for a week is not advisable when a potential serious condition needs to be ruled out promptly.
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