Nursing Elites

1. A 34-year-old has a new diagnosis of type 2 diabetes. The nurse will discuss the need to schedule a dilated eye exam

• A. every 2 years
• B. as soon as possible
• C. when the patient is 39 years old
• D. within the first year after diagnosis

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is 'B' - as soon as possible. Patients with type 2 diabetes should have a dilated eye exam shortly after diagnosis to check for any signs of diabetic retinopathy, a common complication of diabetes. Waiting for 2 years (choice A) may lead to missing early signs of eye damage. Choice C is incorrect as there is no specific age requirement mentioned for the eye exam. Choice D is also incorrect because early detection and intervention are crucial in diabetic eye disease.

2. Which of the following should be included in a discussion of advance directives with new nurse graduates?

• A. According to the Patient Self-Determination Act, nurses are required to inform clients of their right to create an advance directive.
• B. The advance directive designates an individual who will make financial decisions for the client if he or she is unable to do so.
• C. A living will designates who will make health-care decisions for an individual in the event the individual is unable or incompetent to make his or her own decisions.
• D. The advance directive designates a health-care surrogate who will make known the client�s wishes regarding medical treatment if the client is unable to do so.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: According to the Patient Self-Determination Act, nurses are required to inform clients of their right to create an advance directive.

3. A diabetic patient who has reported burning foot pain at night receives a new prescription. Which information should the nurse teach the patient about amitriptyline (Elavil)?

• A. Amitriptyline decreases the depression caused by your foot pain.
• B. Amitriptyline helps prevent transmission of pain impulses to the brain.
• C. Amitriptyline corrects some of the blood vessel changes that cause pain.
• D. Amitriptyline improves sleep and reduces awareness of nighttime pain.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Amitriptyline is a tricyclic antidepressant that works by inhibiting the reuptake of serotonin and norepinephrine, which helps in reducing the transmission of pain impulses to the brain. Choice A is incorrect because amitriptyline primarily works on pain transmission rather than directly on depression. Choice C is inaccurate as amitriptyline's mechanism of action is not related to correcting blood vessel changes. Choice D is partially true as amitriptyline can improve sleep, but the primary mechanism related to pain relief is by preventing pain impulses from reaching the brain.

4. A client requires a 24-hr urine collection. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. ''I had a bowel movement, but I was able to save the urine.''
• B. ''I have a specimen in the bathroom from about 30 minutes ago.''
• C. ''I drink a lot, so I will fill up the bottle and complete the test quickly.''
• D. ''I flushed what I urinated at 7:00 a.m. and have saved all urine since.''

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Option C demonstrates an understanding of the need to collect urine over 24 hours. The client's statement shows awareness that increased fluid intake will help in filling up the collection bottle quickly, which is essential for an accurate test result. This choice reflects the correct understanding of the teaching. Options A, B, and D do not reflect the necessary comprehension for a 24-hr urine collection process. Option A involves a bowel movement, which is not relevant to a urine collection. Option B only mentions a specimen from 30 minutes ago, not over a 24-hour period. Option D indicates flushing urine, which contradicts the idea of saving all urine for the test.

5. A nurse is planning an educational program for a group of older adults at a senior living center. Which of the following recommendations should the nurse include?

• A. You should receive a pneumococcal vaccine when you are 65 years old.
• B. You should receive a shingles vaccine when you are 70 years old.
• C. You should receive a tetanus booster every 5 years.
• D. You should have an eye examination every 2 years.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. The CDC recommends a pneumococcal vaccine for all adults aged 65 years and older. This vaccine helps protect against serious pneumococcal disease. Choice B is incorrect as the shingles vaccine is recommended for adults aged 50 years and older, not specifically at 70 years. Choice C is incorrect because a tetanus booster is recommended every 10 years, not every 5 years. Choice D is incorrect as the general recommendation for eye examinations in older adults is annually, not every 2 years.

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