ATI RN
ATI Leadership Proctored Exam
1. A nurse recognizes which of the following as a primary goal of nursing?
- A. Assist patients to achieve a peaceful death.
- B. Improve personal knowledge and skills to enhance patient outcomes.
- C. Advocate for quality of life over the quantity of life.
- D. Work to control costs to enhance patients' quality of life.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Assist patients to achieve a peaceful death.' One of the primary goals of nursing is to help patients experience a comfortable and peaceful passing when faced with terminal illness or at the end of life. This involves providing holistic care, managing symptoms, and ensuring that patients are as comfortable and pain-free as possible. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because while improving knowledge and skills, advocating for quality of life, and controlling costs are important aspects of nursing care, they are not the primary goal related to end-of-life care.
2. A nurse is admitting a client who has an abdominal wound with a large amount of purulent drainage. Which of the following types of transmission precautions should the nurse initiate?
- A. Droplet precautions
- B. Protective environment
- C. Airborne precautions
- D. Contact precautions
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Contact precautions. Contact precautions are used when there is a risk of transmission of infections through direct or indirect contact. In this scenario, the client has an abdominal wound with purulent drainage, indicating a potential for infection transmission through contact. Droplet precautions (choice A) are used for infections transmitted through respiratory droplets, such as influenza. Protective environment (choice B) is used for immunocompromised clients. Airborne precautions (choice C) are used for infections transmitted through small droplets that remain in the air, like tuberculosis. Therefore, in this case, the nurse should initiate contact precautions to prevent the spread of infection.
3. Several factors are considered in the calculation of the amount of FTEs. Which of the following is NOT considered when calculating the FTEs?
- A. Hours of care provided
- B. Ancillary staff
- C. Procedures to be done
- D. Types of patients
Correct answer: A
Rationale: When calculating Full-Time Equivalents (FTEs), factors such as the hours of work for the staff for two weeks, average daily census, and types of patients are considered. However, the hours of care provided are not typically included in the calculation of FTEs. Therefore, the correct answer is A. Choice B, ancillary staff, can impact FTE calculations as they contribute to the overall workload. Choice C, procedures to be done, can also influence FTE calculations, especially if they affect staffing requirements. Choice D, types of patients, play a role in determining the level of care needed and subsequently impact FTE calculations.
4. Which of the following best describes the concept of evidence-based practice (EBP)?
- A. Clinical expertise as the primary basis for decision making
- B. Research findings as the sole basis for decision making
- C. Combining clinical expertise with the best available research evidence
- D. Following institutional guidelines for patient care
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Combining clinical expertise with the best available research evidence.' Evidence-based practice (EBP) emphasizes integrating clinical expertise with the most current and relevant research evidence when making decisions about patient care. Choice A is incorrect because EBP does not rely solely on clinical expertise. Choice B is incorrect as EBP considers research evidence alongside clinical expertise, not as the sole basis. Choice D is incorrect because EBP is not about blindly following institutional guidelines, but rather about integrating research evidence with clinical judgment to provide the best possible care.
5. What is the main purpose of a utilization review?
- A. Evaluate patient outcomes
- B. Ensure compliance with regulations
- C. Reduce hospital readmissions
- D. Assess financial impact
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The main purpose of a utilization review is to evaluate patient outcomes and ensure that patients receive appropriate care based on medical necessity and quality standards. While ensuring compliance with regulations, reducing hospital readmissions, and assessing financial impact are important aspects of healthcare management, the primary goal of utilization review is to focus on the quality and effectiveness of patient care.
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