ATI RN
ATI Leadership Proctored Exam
1. A nurse recognizes which of the following as a primary goal of nursing?
- A. Assist patients to achieve a peaceful death.
- B. Improve personal knowledge and skills to enhance patient outcomes.
- C. Advocate for quality of life over the quantity of life.
- D. Work to control costs to enhance patients' quality of life.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Assist patients to achieve a peaceful death.' One of the primary goals of nursing is to help patients experience a comfortable and peaceful passing when faced with terminal illness or at the end of life. This involves providing holistic care, managing symptoms, and ensuring that patients are as comfortable and pain-free as possible. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because while improving knowledge and skills, advocating for quality of life, and controlling costs are important aspects of nursing care, they are not the primary goal related to end-of-life care.
2. A resident on night call refuses to answer pages from the staff nurse on the night shift and complains that she calls too often with minor problems. The nurse feels offended and reacts with frequent, middle-of-the-night phone calls to 'get back' at him. The behavior displayed by the resident and the nurse is an example of what kind of conflict?
- A. Perceived conflict
- B. Disruptive conflict
- C. Competitive conflict
- D. Felt conflict
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The behavior displayed by the resident and the nurse is an example of disruptive conflict. In disruptive conflict, the parties involved engage in activities to reduce, defeat, or eliminate the opponent. The resident refusing to answer calls and the nurse retaliating with frequent calls to 'get back' at him exemplify behaviors aimed at causing disruption and conflict between them. Perceived conflict refers to each party's perception of the other's position, competitive conflict involves one side winning at the expense of the other, and felt conflict is about the feelings of opposition within the relationship, none of which fully capture the nature of the conflict displayed in this scenario.
3. Which of the following best describes the concept of patient-centered care?
- A. Care that is directed solely by healthcare providers
- B. Care that involves coordination among multiple healthcare providers
- C. Care that prioritizes the patient's preferences, needs, and values
- D. Care that strictly adheres to the latest clinical guidelines
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Patient-centered care is a healthcare approach that places the patient at the center of decision-making, emphasizing their preferences, needs, and values. This approach ensures that care is tailored to individual patients, taking into account their unique circumstances and actively involving them in their own care. Choice A is incorrect because patient-centered care focuses on the patient's needs rather than being solely directed by healthcare providers. Choice B is incorrect as involving multiple healthcare providers doesn't necessarily mean care is patient-centered; instead, it's about tailoring care to the patient's individual needs. Choice D is also incorrect as patient-centered care goes beyond just following clinical guidelines to encompass individual patient preferences and values.
4. Which of the following best describes the role of a nurse navigator?
- A. Provide direct patient care
- B. Coordinate complex care
- C. Assist with administrative tasks
- D. Manage clinical trials
Correct answer: B
Rationale: A nurse navigator's primary role is to coordinate complex care for patients, guiding them through the healthcare system. Choice A is incorrect because nurse navigators do not provide direct patient care like nurses in clinical settings. Choice C is incorrect as nurse navigators focus on patient care coordination rather than administrative tasks. Choice D is incorrect as managing clinical trials is typically not within the scope of a nurse navigator's responsibilities.
5. One reason for conducting a comprehensive medical exam on an applicant is:
- A. It is needed to protect the organization from legal actions.
- B. It is required after a strenuous interview.
- C. It is mandated by law.
- D. It is necessary to screen for disabilities that may impact employment.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Conducting a comprehensive medical exam on an applicant is crucial to protect the organization from legal actions. This examination helps ensure that the applicant meets the health standards required for the job, reducing the risk of potential liabilities for the organization related to health issues that may arise during employment. Choice B is incorrect because the exam is not a follow-up to a strenuous interview. Choice C is incorrect as not all comprehensive medical exams are mandated by law; they are often part of an organization's policy. Choice D is incorrect as the primary goal of the exam is to assess the applicant's health status in relation to the job requirements, not to screen for disabilities.
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