Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following is an example of a macro-level health policy?

• A. Local health ordinances
• B. State licensing regulations
• C. National healthcare legislation
• D. Institutional policies

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is national healthcare legislation. This type of policy operates at a broad level, influencing healthcare delivery and financing across an entire nation. It sets overarching frameworks and regulations that impact various aspects of the healthcare system on a large scale, affecting a wide population rather than specific localities or institutions. Choices A, B, and D are not examples of macro-level health policy. Local health ordinances pertain to specific areas or communities, state licensing regulations focus on a state level, and institutional policies are internal regulations of a particular healthcare facility.

2. Which of the following best describes the role of a nurse preceptor?

• A. Supervisor of all nursing staff
• B. Mentor and educator for new nurses
• C. Director of nursing services
• D. Coordinator of patient care

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Mentor and educator for new nurses.' A nurse preceptor plays a crucial role in mentoring and educating new nurses. They provide guidance, support, and practical knowledge to help new nurses transition smoothly into their roles. While preceptors may have supervisory responsibilities during the orientation period, their primary focus is on supporting the professional development of new nurses, rather than supervising all nursing staff, directing nursing services, or coordinating patient care. Choice A is incorrect because a nurse preceptor does not supervise all nursing staff but focuses on new nurses. Choice C is incorrect as the role of a director of nursing services involves overall management and leadership of nursing services. Choice D is incorrect as a coordinator of patient care is responsible for organizing patient care activities, not specifically focused on mentoring new nurses.

3. The healthcare provider suspects the Somogyi effect in a 50-year-old patient whose 6:00 AM blood glucose is 230 mg/dL. Which action will the nurse teach the patient to take?

• A. Avoid snacking at bedtime.
• B. Increase the rapid-acting insulin dose.
• C. Check the blood glucose during the night.
• D. Administer a larger dose of long-acting insulin.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The Somogyi effect, also known as rebound hyperglycemia, occurs due to an excessive insulin dose at night, leading to hypoglycemia in the early morning hours. To address this, the nurse should instruct the patient to check their blood glucose during the night to determine if hypoglycemia is present, which triggers the rebound hyperglycemia. By monitoring blood glucose levels during the night, the patient can identify if adjustments are needed to prevent this phenomenon and maintain stable glucose levels. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Avoiding snacking at bedtime, increasing rapid-acting insulin dose, or administering a larger dose of long-acting insulin are not appropriate actions to manage the Somogyi effect. Checking blood glucose during the night is crucial to identify and prevent the rebound hyperglycemia characteristic of this phenomenon.

4. During a physical assessment of adult clients, which of the following techniques should the nurse use?

• A. Use the Face, Legs, Activity, Cry, and Consolability (FLACC) pain rating scale for a client experiencing pain.
• B. Palpate the client's abdomen before auscultating bowel sounds.
• C. Ensure the bladder of the blood pressure cuff surrounds 80% of the client's arm.
• D. Obtain an apical heart rate by auscultating at the third intercostal space to the left of the sternum.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When performing a physical assessment, it is essential to palpate the client's abdomen before auscultating bowel sounds. This sequence helps prevent altering bowel sound results due to the pressure applied during palpation. Choice A is incorrect because the FLACC pain rating scale is typically used for nonverbal or pediatric clients, not adults. Choice C is incorrect because the bladder of the blood pressure cuff should surround about 80% of the client's arm circumference, not the bladder of the cuff itself. Choice D is incorrect because to obtain an apical heart rate, auscultation should be done at the fifth intercostal space at the midclavicular line, not at the third intercostal space to the left of the sternum.

5. An RN is writing reminders for good documentation for the nurses on her staff. The purpose is to ensure nursing documentation is legally credible. Which of the following is a recommendation she should include in the reminders?

• A. Use shortcuts in documentation.
• B. Only use approved abbreviations.
• C. Documentation should be subjective.
• D. Document after care is provided.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct recommendation that should be included in the reminders for ensuring legally credible nursing documentation is to 'Only use approved abbreviations.' Using shortcuts in documentation (Choice A) may lead to incomplete or vague information, compromising the credibility of documentation. Documentation should not be subjective (Choice C) but rather objective and based on factual information. While it is important to document after care is provided (Choice D), the immediate documentation following care provision is critical for accuracy and legal credibility.

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