ATI RN
ATI RN Custom Exams Set 3
1. A 31-year-old client is seeking contraceptive information. Before responding to the client’s questions about contraceptives, the nurse obtains a health history. What factor in the client’s history indicates to the nurse that oral contraceptives are contraindicated?
- A. More than 30 years of age
- B. Had two multiple pregnancies
- C. Smokes 1 pack of cigarettes a day
- D. Has a history of borderline hypertension
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Smoking, especially in clients over 30, increases the risk of thromboembolic events, making oral contraceptives contraindicated. Choice A (More than 30 years of age) is not a direct contraindication for oral contraceptives. Choice B (Had two multiple pregnancies) is not a factor that contraindicates the use of oral contraceptives. Choice D (Has a history of borderline hypertension) is not a specific contraindication for oral contraceptives unless it is severe or uncontrolled hypertension.
2. What is the correct amount of specimen to collect when collecting a stool specimen for testing purposes?
- A. The nurse scoop the specimen specifically at the site
- B. She took around 1 inch of specimen or a teaspoonful
- C. Ask the client to call her for the specimen after the
- D. Ask the client to defecate in a bedpan, Secure a
Correct answer: B
Rationale: When collecting a stool specimen, the nurse should usually take about 1 inch of the specimen or a teaspoonful for testing purposes. This amount is sufficient for laboratory analysis and helps ensure accurate results. It is important for the nurse to follow the proper procedure for specimen collection to maintain accuracy in diagnostic testing. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not provide the correct information on the amount of specimen needed for stool specimen collection.
3. The nurse on the postsurgical unit received a client that was transferred from the post-anesthesia care unit (PACU) and is planning care for this client. The nurse understands that staff should begin planning for this client’s discharge at which point during the hospitalization?
- A. Is admitted to the surgical unit
- B. Is transferred from the PACU to the postsurgical unit
- C. Is able to perform activities of daily living independently
- D. Has been assessed by the healthcare provider for the first time after surgery
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Discharge planning should begin as soon as the patient is admitted to the surgical unit to ensure a smooth transition. Option A is the correct choice because it marks the initial point in the hospitalization process where discharge planning should start. Options B, C, and D are not the ideal points to begin discharge planning. Option B only signifies a transfer within the hospital, while Option C relates to the patient's independence in activities of daily living, which is not directly linked to discharge planning. Option D, having the patient assessed by the healthcare provider for the first time after surgery, is unrelated to the timing of discharge planning.
4. Six hours after major abdominal surgery, a male client complains of severe abdominal pain; is pale and perspiring; has a thready, rapid pulse; and states he feels faint. The nurse checks the client’s medication administration record and determines that the client receives another injection of pain medication in an hour. What is the appropriate action by the nurse?
- A. Explain to the client that it is too early to have an injection for pain
- B. Call the practitioner, report the client’s symptoms, and obtain further orders
- C. Reposition the client for greater comfort and turn on the television as a distraction
- D. Prepare the injection and administer it to the client early because of the severe pain
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take in this situation is to call the practitioner, report the client’s symptoms, and obtain further orders. The client's symptoms, including severe abdominal pain, pallor, perspiration, thready rapid pulse, and feeling faint, are indicative of potential complications like internal bleeding, which require immediate medical evaluation. Explaining to the client that it is too early for pain medication or repositioning the client for comfort are not appropriate actions given the severity of the symptoms. Administering the injection early without consulting the practitioner can be dangerous and may worsen the client's condition.
5. Which of the following is NOT one of the three basic areas of concern into which practical nurse management responsibilities can be categorized?
- A. Managing patients' legal affairs
- B. Managing the hypothalamus: The hypothalamus is a small area in the brain located just below the thalamus. It plays a crucial role in controlling various bodily functions, including temperature regulation, hunger, and thirst, sleep-wake cycles, and hormone regulation. The hypothalamus is also involved in the control of the autonomic nervous system and the release of hormones from the pituitary gland.
- C. Managing work center operations
- D. Managing personnel
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Managing patients' legal affairs is not a basic area of concern in practical nurse management responsibilities. The primary areas typically include managing work center operations, managing personnel, and overseeing patient care. Choice B, managing the hypothalamus, is irrelevant to nurse management responsibilities and is not a standard area of concern in this context. Choice C, managing work center operations, and Choice D, managing personnel, align more closely with the core responsibilities and concerns of practical nurse management roles.
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