Nursing Elites

1. Which hospital level is a 296-bed facility that is staffed and equipped to provide care for all categories of patients?

• A. FSB
• B. CSH
• C. GH
• D. FH

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is "GH" (General Hospital), which is a 296-bed facility providing comprehensive care for all categories of patients. Choice A, FSB, is incorrect as it does not denote a hospital level. Choice B, CSH, is incorrect as it does not specify a 296-bed facility. Choice D, FH, is incorrect as it does not indicate a hospital level or capacity.

2. Which of the following is NOT one of the major duties of the M6 practical nurse?

• A. Performing preventive, therapeutic, and emergency nursing care procedures
• B. Managing other paraprofessional personnel
• C. Managing ward or unit operations
• D. Implementing Level II through Level IV CSH operations

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Implementing Level II through Level IV CSH operations is not a major duty of the M6 practical nurse. The M6 practical nurse is primarily responsible for performing preventive, therapeutic, and emergency nursing care procedures (A), managing other paraprofessional personnel (B), and managing ward or unit operations (C). The duties mentioned in choices A, B, and C align with the roles typically assigned to a practical nurse, making them incorrect answers for this question.

3. Which endocrine disorder would the nurse assess for in a client who has a closed head injury with increased intracranial pressure?

• A. Pheochromocytoma
• B. Diabetes insipidus
• C. Hashimoto’s disease
• D. Gynecomastia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B, Diabetes insipidus. Diabetes insipidus can develop after a head injury due to damage to the hypothalamus or pituitary gland, leading to a deficiency in antidiuretic hormone (ADH). Pheochromocytoma (choice A) is a tumor of the adrenal gland and is not directly related to closed head injury or increased intracranial pressure. Hashimoto’s disease (choice C) is an autoimmune disorder affecting the thyroid gland, not commonly associated with head injuries. Gynecomastia (choice D) is the development of breast tissue in males and is not an endocrine disorder typically linked to closed head injuries.

4. When is Aspirin most effective when taken?

• A. On an empty stomach with cold water
• B. On a full stomach after a meal
• C. With a glass of fruit juice
• D. First thing in the morning

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Aspirin is best absorbed on an empty stomach to maximize its effectiveness. Taking it with cold water helps to enhance absorption. Choice B is incorrect as taking aspirin on a full stomach may reduce its absorption. Choice C is incorrect as fruit juice can sometimes interact with medications. Choice D is incorrect as taking aspirin first thing in the morning may not optimize its absorption.

5. Which of the following is a primary intervention for managing hyperphosphatemia?

• A. Increasing calcium intake
• B. Increasing phosphorus intake
• C. Decreasing calcium intake
• D. Administering phosphate binders

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, administering phosphate binders. Phosphate binders are a primary intervention for managing hyperphosphatemia as they help by binding phosphorus in the gut, preventing its absorption. Increasing calcium intake (choice A) or phosphorus intake (choice B) would exacerbate hyperphosphatemia. Decreasing calcium intake (choice C) is not a primary intervention for managing high phosphorus levels.

Similar Questions