a 17 year old woman has come to the clinic requesting emergency contraception after having unprotected sex 24 hours ago what medication is the clinici a 17 year old woman has come to the clinic requesting emergency contraception after having unprotected sex 24 hours ago what medication is the clinici
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Pathophysiology Final Exam

1. A 17-year-old woman has come to the clinic requesting emergency contraception after having unprotected sex 24 hours ago. What medication is the clinician most likely to prescribe?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Levonorgestrel (Plan B). Levonorgestrel is the most commonly prescribed medication for emergency contraception within 72 hours of unprotected intercourse. It is effective when taken within 72 hours after intercourse, with better efficacy the sooner it is taken. Choice B, Mifepristone (RU-486), is not indicated for emergency contraception but is used for medical abortion. Choice C, Ulipristal acetate (ella), is another option for emergency contraception that is effective up to 120 hours after unprotected intercourse. Choice D, Estradiol (Estrace), is not used for emergency contraception.

2. A patient with social anxiety disorder is prescribed propranolol. The nurse understands that this medication is used primarily to:

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Reduce anxiety symptoms. Propranolol, a beta-blocker, is primarily used to reduce physical symptoms of anxiety, such as rapid heartbeat and trembling, in patients with social anxiety disorder. It does not directly affect mood, energy levels, or social interactions. Choice B is incorrect because propranolol does not target mood improvement. Choice C is incorrect because propranolol does not aim to increase energy levels. Choice D is incorrect because propranolol does not enhance social interactions; its primary role is in reducing physical symptoms of anxiety.

3. Nonnormative influences are irregular and do not follow a predictable timetable.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Nonnormative. Nonnormative influences are events or experiences that are irregular and unique to the individual, so they do not follow a predictable timetable. These influences can include major life events like winning the lottery or experiencing a natural disaster, and they have a significant impact on a person's development. Choice B, History-graded influences, are events that are common to people of a particular generation due to historical circumstances. Choice C, Age-graded influences, are events that are typical for people of a certain age group. Choice D, Bio-historical, is not a recognized term in developmental psychology.

4. Which among the following is NOT the cause of pressure ulcers?

Correct answer: Adequate perfusion

Rationale:

5. While assessing a patient's peripheral IV site, you note edema around the insertion site. How should you document this complication related to IV therapy?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Infiltration is the administration of a nonvesicant solution or medication into the surrounding tissue, typically due to the dislodgement or perforation of the vein wall by the IV cannula. It is characterized by edema around the insertion site, leakage of IV fluid, discomfort, coolness, and a decrease in flow rate. In this scenario, the presence of edema indicates infiltration, not air emboli, phlebitis, or fluid overload. Air emboli refer to air bubbles in the bloodstream, phlebitis is inflammation of the vein, and fluid overload is an excessive volume of fluid in the circulatory system.

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