a 17 year old woman has come to the clinic requesting emergency contraception after having unprotected sex 24 hours ago what medication is the clinici
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ATI RN

ATI Pathophysiology Final Exam

1. A 17-year-old woman has come to the clinic requesting emergency contraception after having unprotected sex 24 hours ago. What medication is the clinician most likely to prescribe?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Levonorgestrel (Plan B). Levonorgestrel is the most commonly prescribed medication for emergency contraception within 72 hours of unprotected intercourse. It is effective when taken within 72 hours after intercourse, with better efficacy the sooner it is taken. Choice B, Mifepristone (RU-486), is not indicated for emergency contraception but is used for medical abortion. Choice C, Ulipristal acetate (ella), is another option for emergency contraception that is effective up to 120 hours after unprotected intercourse. Choice D, Estradiol (Estrace), is not used for emergency contraception.

2. When treating a patient for a fungal infection with IV amphotericin B, what should the nurse consistently monitor the patient's levels of to prevent drug discomfort?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When a patient is being treated with IV amphotericin B for a fungal infection, it is crucial to monitor the patient's calcium levels consistently. IV amphotericin B can cause hypokalemia, hypomagnesemia, and most notably, hypocalcemia. Monitoring calcium levels helps prevent drug-related discomfort and adverse effects. Sodium (Choice A), hemoglobin (Choice B), and leukocytes (Choice D) are not the primary parameters to monitor specifically for drug discomfort related to amphotericin B. Therefore, they are incorrect choices.

3. Helicobacter pylori (H. pylori) often causes which of the following?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Helicobacter pylori is a bacterium known to cause peptic ulcer disease by weakening the protective lining of the stomach and duodenum, leading to inflammation and ulcers. While chronic H. pylori infection is a risk factor for stomach cancer, it is not directly linked to colon cancer (Choice A), hiatal hernia (Choice B), or esophageal varices (Choice D). Therefore, the correct answer is C.

4. Why is the administration of benzene hexachloride (Lindane) for the treatment of scabies applied in small quantities?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The rationale for instructing the patient to apply benzene hexachloride (Lindane) in small quantities for scabies treatment is that excessive applications can lead to central nervous system toxicity. Lindane is a neurotoxin, and overuse or incorrect application can result in adverse effects on the central nervous system, such as seizures, dizziness, and even death. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not reflect the specific toxic effects associated with Lindane, which primarily affects the central nervous system rather than causing skin irritation, gastrointestinal symptoms, or metabolic issues.

5. Which of the following conditions is associated with a positive Homan's sign?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A positive Homan's sign is indicative of deep vein thrombosis. This sign is elicited by dorsiflexing the foot of a patient with the knee slightly flexed, resulting in calf pain. Peripheral artery disease (choice B) is associated with decreased blood flow to the extremities, but it does not produce a positive Homan's sign. Varicose veins (choice C) are enlarged, twisted veins that are typically not related to Homan's sign. Lymphedema (choice D) is swelling caused by a lymphatic system blockage or dysfunction and is not linked to Homan's sign.

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