Nursing Elites

1. A 12-month-old infant has been diagnosed with failure to thrive (FTT). Which assessment findings does the nurse expect to be documented with this infant?

• A. Fear of strangers
• B. Minimal smiling
• C. Avoidance of eye contact
• D. All of the above

Correct answer: D

Rationale: These behaviors are consistent with FTT and indicate social withdrawal, which is often observed in infants who are not thriving. A wide-eyed gaze and avoidance of eye contact can also indicate developmental delays or emotional disturbances.

2. Which dietary information should the nurse include in the teaching plan for a school-age child with chronic renal failure?

• A. High in sodium
• B. Low in Vitamin D
• C. Low in phosphorus
• D. Supplementation of vitamins C, E, K

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A low-phosphorus diet is recommended for children with chronic renal failure to prevent hyperphosphatemia, which can lead to bone disease and other complications. Phosphorus is found in many processed foods and should be limited. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because high sodium intake can lead to fluid retention and hypertension, while Vitamin D supplementation and vitamins C, E, K are not specifically indicated for dietary recommendations in chronic renal failure.

3. An infant with short bowel syndrome is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN). The practitioner has added continuous enteral feedings through a gastrostomy tube. The nurse recognizes this as important for which reason?

• A. Wean the infant from TPN gradually
• B. Stimulate adaptation of the small intestine
• C. Provide additional nutrients that cannot be included in the TPN
• D. Offer parents encouragement that the child is close to discharge

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Continuous enteral feedings help stimulate the small intestine's adaptation in short bowel syndrome, promoting better nutrient absorption and eventually reducing reliance on TPN. This approach is crucial for long-term management and improving the child's prognosis. Choice A is incorrect because weaning off TPN typically occurs gradually over time, not the next day. Choice C is incorrect because TPN can be adjusted to provide necessary nutrients, and enteral feedings are mainly used to stimulate intestinal function. Choice D is incorrect as the addition of enteral feedings does not necessarily indicate imminent discharge; it primarily focuses on enhancing intestinal adaptation and reducing reliance on TPN.

4. Which is the most frequently used test for measuring visual acuity?

• A. Snellen letter chart
• B. Ishihara vision test
• C. Allen picture card test
• D. Denver eye screening test

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The Snellen letter chart is the most commonly used test for measuring visual acuity, particularly in school-age children and adults.

5. The parents of a child born with ambiguous genitalia tell the nurse that family and friends are asking what caused the baby to be this way. Tests are being done to assist in gender assignment. What should the nurse's intervention include?

• A. Explain the disorder so they can explain it to others.
• B. Help parents understand that this is a minor problem.
• C. Suggest that parents avoid family and friends until the gender is assigned.
• D. Encourage parents not to worry while the tests are being done.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: It is important for the nurse to provide the parents with accurate information so they can confidently explain the situation to others, helping to reduce stress and misinformation. Avoiding family and friends or minimizing the problem is not helpful.

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