Nursing Elites

1. A 12-month-old infant has been diagnosed with failure to thrive (FTT). Which assessment findings does the nurse expect to be documented with this infant?

• A. Fear of strangers
• B. Minimal smiling
• C. Avoidance of eye contact
• D. All of the above

Correct answer: D

Rationale: These behaviors are consistent with FTT and indicate social withdrawal, which is often observed in infants who are not thriving. A wide-eyed gaze and avoidance of eye contact can also indicate developmental delays or emotional disturbances.

2. Which type of play is most appropriate for a hospitalized toddler?

• A. Cooperative play
• B. Parallel play
• C. Competitive play
• D. Solitary play

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The most appropriate type of play for a hospitalized toddler is parallel play. This type of play allows toddlers to engage alongside each other but not directly with each other, which can be comforting and less overwhelming in a hospital setting. Cooperative play (choice A) involves working together towards a common goal, which may be challenging for a hospitalized toddler. Competitive play (choice C) involves a level of rivalry that may not be suitable during a hospital stay. Solitary play (choice D) involves playing alone, which may not provide the social interaction and distraction that parallel play can offer in a hospital environment.

3. A child diagnosed with aplastic anemia is admitted to the hospital. The parents ask the nurse what aplastic anemia is. Which response by the nurse is accurate?

• A. Aplastic anemia causes a proliferation of white blood cells.
• B. Aplastic anemia is characterized by abnormally shaped red blood cells.
• C. Aplastic anemia is caused by the bone marrow producing inadequate cells.
• D. Aplastic anemia is a disorder that occurs after a viral illness.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Aplastic anemia is a condition where the bone marrow fails to produce sufficient red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets, leading to pancytopenia. This can result in fatigue, infections, and bleeding tendencies. It is not characterized by abnormal red blood cell shapes, but rather by a reduction in the production of blood cells. Therefore, the accurate response is that aplastic anemia is caused by the bone marrow producing inadequate cells. Choices A and B are incorrect as aplastic anemia does not cause a proliferation of white blood cells or involve abnormally shaped red blood cells. Choice D is incorrect as aplastic anemia is not typically a disorder that occurs after a viral illness.

4. Identification and treatment of cryptorchid testes should be done by age 2 years. What is an important consideration?

• A. Medical therapy is not effective after this age.
• B. Treatment is necessary to maintain the ability to be fertile when older.
• C. The younger child can tolerate the extensive surgery needed.
• D. Sexual reassignment may be necessary if treatment is not successful.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Early treatment of cryptorchidism is essential to preserve fertility and prevent complications such as testicular cancer. Surgery is usually well-tolerated, and sexual reassignment is not typically related to this condition.

5. The nurse is caring for a child with an order of Ampicillin 250 mg IV in 30 mL of Normal Saline to infuse over 30 minutes. How many mL/hour should the nurse set the pump?

• A. 60
• B. 30
• C. 120
• D. 15

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct setting for the infusion pump should be 60 mL/hour to deliver 30 mL in 30 minutes. To calculate the infusion rate in mL/hour, divide the total volume to be infused (30 mL) by the total time for infusion (30 minutes) and then multiply by 60 to convert minutes to hours. Therefore, 30 mL / 30 minutes * 60 minutes/hour = 60 mL/hour. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not match the calculation based on the given parameters.

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