which of the following is a primary intervention for managing hyperphosphatemia
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI RN Custom Exams Set 4

1. What is a primary intervention for managing hyperphosphatemia?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Administering phosphate binders is a primary intervention for managing hyperphosphatemia. Phosphate binders work by binding phosphorus in the gut, preventing its absorption. Increasing calcium intake (Choice A) is not a primary intervention for hyperphosphatemia and can actually exacerbate the condition by potentially raising calcium levels. Increasing phosphorus intake (Choice B) is contraindicated in hyperphosphatemia. Decreasing calcium intake (Choice C) may help manage hypercalcemia but is not the primary intervention for hyperphosphatemia.

2. Performing and supervising therapeutic and preventive procedures that have been planned for a patient is part of which of the following steps for determining and fulfilling the nursing care needs of the patient?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Implementation. Implementation in nursing care involves the actual performance and supervision of the planned therapeutic and preventive procedures for a patient. Evaluation (choice A) is the step where the effectiveness of the interventions is assessed. Planning (choice B) is the phase where the nursing care plan is developed based on the assessment. Assessment (choice D) is the initial step in the nursing process, involving data collection and analysis to determine the patient's needs.

3. The nurse is administering a beta blocker to the client diagnosed with essential hypertension. Which data would cause the nurse to question administering the medication?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. A beta blocker should be withheld if the apical pulse is below 60, as it can further decrease the heart rate. Choice A is not a reason to question administering a beta blocker as the blood pressure is within normal range. Choice B is not directly related to the administration of a beta blocker. Choice C may indicate a potential adverse effect of another medication, but it does not specifically warrant questioning the administration of the beta blocker.

4. The nurse is analyzing laboratory values for the assigned clients. Which finding, based on the client's medical history, indicates the need for immediate follow-up?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: An HbA1c of 7.0% in a client with diabetes mellitus indicates poor long-term glucose control, necessitating immediate follow-up. Elevated HbA1c levels suggest a higher average blood sugar over the past 2-3 months, increasing the risk of complications associated with diabetes. Choices A, C, and D do not require immediate follow-up based solely on the provided information. A serum creatinine of 1.6 mg/dL in a client with chronic kidney disease, a BNP of 140 pg/mL in a client with heart failure, and hemoglobin of 16.5 g/dL and hematocrit of 45% in a male client with anemia are within acceptable ranges or do not indicate an urgent need for intervention.

5. Before administering an MMR (measles, mumps, and rubella) vaccine to a 15-month-old, which question should the nurse ask the mother of the child?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct question the nurse should ask the mother before administering an MMR vaccine to a 15-month-old is whether the child is allergic to any antibiotics. This is crucial because vaccines like MMR contain components that the child could be allergic to, such as neomycin. Checking for antibiotic allergies is essential to prevent adverse reactions to the vaccine. The other options are less relevant in this context. Asking about sore throats, eating habits, or exposure to infections does not directly impact the administration of the MMR vaccine.

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