which of the following is a primary intervention for managing hyperphosphatemia
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI RN Custom Exams Set 4

1. What is a primary intervention for managing hyperphosphatemia?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Administering phosphate binders is a primary intervention for managing hyperphosphatemia. Phosphate binders work by binding phosphorus in the gut, preventing its absorption. Increasing calcium intake (Choice A) is not a primary intervention for hyperphosphatemia and can actually exacerbate the condition by potentially raising calcium levels. Increasing phosphorus intake (Choice B) is contraindicated in hyperphosphatemia. Decreasing calcium intake (Choice C) may help manage hypercalcemia but is not the primary intervention for hyperphosphatemia.

2. Which of the following drugs contribute to peptic ulcers?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs). NSAIDs are known to contribute to peptic ulcers by affecting the gastric mucosa. Choice A, Antacids, actually help to alleviate symptoms of peptic ulcers by neutralizing stomach acid. Choice B, Certain antibiotics, are used to treat H. pylori infections, a common cause of peptic ulcers. Choice C, Cholesterol-lowering medications, do not contribute to peptic ulcers.

3. The client with peripheral venous disease is scheduled to go to the whirlpool for a dressing change. Which is the nurse’s priority intervention?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Pain management is essential before the procedure to ensure the client’s comfort and cooperation during the dressing change. Escorting the client to the physical therapy department (choice A) is not the priority at this time. While obtaining sterile dressing supplies (choice C) is important, ensuring pain management takes precedence. Assisting the client to the bathroom (choice D) is not directly related to the priority intervention of pain management before the whirlpool treatment.

4. The nurse is teaching a community class to people with Type 2 diabetes mellitus. Which explanation would explain the development of Type 2 diabetes?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. In Type 2 diabetes, the primary issue is insulin resistance, where cells do not respond effectively to insulin. Choice A is incorrect because in Type 1 diabetes, the islet cells in the pancreas stop producing insulin. Choice B is not directly related to the development of Type 2 diabetes but rather to its management. Choice C is incorrect as it refers to a dysfunction in vasopressin production, which is not related to Type 2 diabetes.

5. Which discharge instruction should the nurse teach the client diagnosed with varicose veins who has received sclerotherapy?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client to walk 15 to 20 minutes three times a day. Walking is beneficial as it helps improve circulation and reduces the risk of complications following sclerotherapy. Choice B is incorrect because keeping the legs in the dependent position when sitting can lead to increased venous pressure, worsening varicose veins. Choice C is incorrect as compression bandages should typically be worn continuously, especially during the initial healing phase. Choice D is incorrect as Berger-Allen exercises are not commonly associated with post-sclerotherapy care.

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