Nursing Elites

1. What is a primary intervention for managing hyperphosphatemia?

• A. Increasing calcium intake
• B. Increasing phosphorus intake
• C. Decreasing calcium intake
• D. Administering phosphate binders

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Administering phosphate binders is a primary intervention for managing hyperphosphatemia. Phosphate binders work by binding phosphorus in the gut, preventing its absorption. Increasing calcium intake (Choice A) is not a primary intervention for hyperphosphatemia and can actually exacerbate the condition by potentially raising calcium levels. Increasing phosphorus intake (Choice B) is contraindicated in hyperphosphatemia. Decreasing calcium intake (Choice C) may help manage hypercalcemia but is not the primary intervention for hyperphosphatemia.

2. When is aspirin most effective when taken?

• A. On an empty stomach with cold water
• B. On a full stomach after a meal
• C. With a glass of fruit juice
• D. First thing in the morning

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Aspirin is best absorbed on an empty stomach to maximize its effectiveness. Taking it with cold water helps in its quick absorption. Option B is incorrect because taking aspirin on a full stomach can delay its absorption. Option C is incorrect as fruit juice may not provide the ideal conditions for absorption. Option D is incorrect as taking aspirin first thing in the morning may not ensure an empty stomach.

3. Students in the resident M6 Practical Nurse Course are expected to achieve entry-level competencies for which of the following?

• A. Medical-surgical nursing
• B. Obstetric and newborn nursing
• C. Pediatric nursing
• D. Trauma nursing

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Medical-surgical nursing. In the resident M6 Practical Nurse Course, students are expected to achieve entry-level competencies in medical-surgical nursing. This area of nursing focuses on caring for adult patients with a variety of medical conditions. Obstetric and newborn nursing (choice B), pediatric nursing (choice C), and trauma nursing (choice D) are specialized areas within nursing that are not typically covered in entry-level practical nurse courses, making them incorrect choices.

4. During synchronized cardioversion on a client in atrial fibrillation, when the machine is activated, and there is a pause, what action should the nurse take?

• A. Wait until the machine discharges
• B. Shout “all clear” and don’t touch the bed
• C. Make sure the client is all right
• D. Increase the joules and re-discharge

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take when there is a pause after the machine is activated during synchronized cardioversion is to shout “all clear” and ensure that no one is touching the client or the bed to prevent them from being shocked. This step is crucial for the safety of everyone present during the procedure. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because waiting without confirming safety, focusing on the client's condition only, or increasing joules without safety precautions can lead to potential harm or injury.

5. Which of the following is a specialized medical treatment and teaching facility that provides general and specialized medical and dental care and treatment?

• A. CONUS
• B. MEDCEN
• C. MEDCOM
• D. MEDDAC

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B, MEDCEN, which stands for Medical Center. A MEDCEN is a specialized medical treatment and teaching facility that provides general and specialized medical and dental care and treatment. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. CONUS refers to the continental United States and is not a medical facility. MEDCOM stands for Medical Command, which is an organization rather than a specific facility for medical treatment. MEDDAC stands for Medical Department Activity and is also an organization responsible for medical care delivery, not a specific treatment facility.

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