which of the following is a primary intervention for managing hyperphosphatemia
Logo

Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI RN Custom Exams Set 4

1. What is a primary intervention for managing hyperphosphatemia?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Administering phosphate binders is a primary intervention for managing hyperphosphatemia. Phosphate binders work by binding phosphorus in the gut, preventing its absorption. Increasing calcium intake (Choice A) is not a primary intervention for hyperphosphatemia and can actually exacerbate the condition by potentially raising calcium levels. Increasing phosphorus intake (Choice B) is contraindicated in hyperphosphatemia. Decreasing calcium intake (Choice C) may help manage hypercalcemia but is not the primary intervention for hyperphosphatemia.

2. When assessing the integumentary system of a client with anorexia nervosa, which finding would support the diagnosis?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Dry, brittle hair is a common sign of malnutrition, often seen in clients with anorexia nervosa. In anorexia nervosa, the body lacks essential nutrients due to severe calorie restriction, leading to dryness and brittleness of the hair. Choices A, B, and C are less likely to directly indicate anorexia nervosa. Preoccupation with calories can be a behavioral symptom, thick body hair is not a typical finding associated with anorexia nervosa, and a sore tongue is more commonly related to nutritional deficiencies like vitamin deficiencies rather than anorexia nervosa.

3. The client is diagnosed with pericarditis. When assessing the client, the nurse is unable to auscultate a friction rub. Which action should the nurse implement?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take when unable to auscultate a pericardial friction rub in a client diagnosed with pericarditis is to ask the client to lean forward and listen again. This position brings the heart closer to the chest wall, making it easier to detect a friction rub if present. Notifying the healthcare provider is not necessary at this point as it may just be a matter of positioning for better auscultation. Documenting that the pericarditis has resolved is premature without proper assessment. Preparing to insert a unilateral chest tube is not indicated based on the absence of a friction rub.

4. The client diagnosed with Type 2 diabetes mellitus is being taught about diet by the nurse. Which diet selection indicates the client understands the teaching?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because a smoked turkey sandwich with celery sticks and unsweetened tea reflects a balanced and healthy choice suitable for a client with Type 2 diabetes mellitus. Turkey is a lean protein choice, celery sticks offer fiber and low calories, and unsweetened tea is a sugar-free beverage. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they include high-carb, high-fat, and sugary options that are not recommended for individuals with diabetes as they can spike blood sugar levels.

5. For which client situation would a consultation with a rapid response team (RRT) be most appropriate?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A consultation with a Rapid Response Team (RRT) is most appropriate for the 45-year-old client described in Choice A. This client is 2 years post kidney transplant, presenting with no urine output for 6 hours, a temperature of 101.4°F, heart rate of 98 beats per minute, respirations of 20 breaths per minute, and a blood pressure of 88/72 mm Hg, along with restlessness. These clinical signs are indicative of possible acute renal failure and sepsis, requiring immediate intervention by the rapid response team. Choices B, C, and D do not present the same level of urgency and severity of symptoms as the client in Choice A, making them less appropriate for consultation with the RRT.

Similar Questions

Whenever possible, patients evacuated from the theater of operations who are expected to return within 60 days are admitted to which of the following?
Which endocrine disorder would the nurse assess for in a client who has a closed head injury with increased intracranial pressure?
After attempting suicide by taking 200 acetaminophen (Tylenol) tablets, a client is transferred from the emergency department to the locked psychiatric unit. The client is now awake and alert but refuses to speak with the nurse. In this situation, what is the nurse’s first priority?
In patients receiving chemotherapy, which nutrient is often supplemented to manage mucositis?
When assessing a client for an endocrine dysfunction, which question should the nurse ask?

Access More Features

ATI RN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days

ATI RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days

Other Courses