ATI RN
ATI RN Custom Exams Set 4
1. What is a primary intervention for managing hyperphosphatemia?
- A. Increasing calcium intake
- B. Increasing phosphorus intake
- C. Decreasing calcium intake
- D. Administering phosphate binders
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Administering phosphate binders is a primary intervention for managing hyperphosphatemia. Phosphate binders work by binding phosphorus in the gut, preventing its absorption. Increasing calcium intake (Choice A) is not a primary intervention for hyperphosphatemia and can actually exacerbate the condition by potentially raising calcium levels. Increasing phosphorus intake (Choice B) is contraindicated in hyperphosphatemia. Decreasing calcium intake (Choice C) may help manage hypercalcemia but is not the primary intervention for hyperphosphatemia.
2. When assessing the integumentary system of a client with anorexia nervosa, which finding would support the diagnosis?
- A. Preoccupation with calories
- B. Thick body hair
- C. Sore tongue
- D. Dry, brittle hair
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Dry, brittle hair is a common sign of malnutrition, often seen in clients with anorexia nervosa. In anorexia nervosa, the body lacks essential nutrients due to severe calorie restriction, leading to dryness and brittleness of the hair. Choices A, B, and C are less likely to directly indicate anorexia nervosa. Preoccupation with calories can be a behavioral symptom, thick body hair is not a typical finding associated with anorexia nervosa, and a sore tongue is more commonly related to nutritional deficiencies like vitamin deficiencies rather than anorexia nervosa.
3. The client is diagnosed with pericarditis. When assessing the client, the nurse is unable to auscultate a friction rub. Which action should the nurse implement?
- A. Notify the healthcare provider
- B. Document that the pericarditis has resolved
- C. Ask the client to lean forward and listen again
- D. Prepare to insert a unilateral chest tube
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take when unable to auscultate a pericardial friction rub in a client diagnosed with pericarditis is to ask the client to lean forward and listen again. This position brings the heart closer to the chest wall, making it easier to detect a friction rub if present. Notifying the healthcare provider is not necessary at this point as it may just be a matter of positioning for better auscultation. Documenting that the pericarditis has resolved is premature without proper assessment. Preparing to insert a unilateral chest tube is not indicated based on the absence of a friction rub.
4. The client diagnosed with Type 2 diabetes mellitus is being taught about diet by the nurse. Which diet selection indicates the client understands the teaching?
- A. A submarine sandwich, potato chips, and diet cola
- B. Four (4) slices of a supreme thin-crust pizza and milk
- C. Smoked turkey sandwich, celery sticks, and unsweetened tea
- D. A roast beef sandwich, fried onion rings, and a cola
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because a smoked turkey sandwich with celery sticks and unsweetened tea reflects a balanced and healthy choice suitable for a client with Type 2 diabetes mellitus. Turkey is a lean protein choice, celery sticks offer fiber and low calories, and unsweetened tea is a sugar-free beverage. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they include high-carb, high-fat, and sugary options that are not recommended for individuals with diabetes as they can spike blood sugar levels.
5. For which client situation would a consultation with a rapid response team (RRT) be most appropriate?
- A. 45-year-old; 2 years post kidney transplant; second hospital day for treatment of pneumonia; no urine output for 6 hours; temperature 101.4°F; heart rate of 98 beats per minute; respirations 20 breaths per minute; blood pressure 88/72 mm Hg; is restless
- B. 72-year-old; 24 hours after removal of a chest tube that was used to drain pleural fluid (effusion); temperature 97.8°F; heart rate 92 beats per minute; respirations 28 breaths per minute; blood pressure 132/86 mm Hg; anxious about going home
- C. 56-year-old fourth hospital day after a coronary artery bypass procedure; sore chest; pain with walking temperature 97°F; heart rate 84 beats per minute; respirations 22 breaths per minute; blood pressure 87/72 mm Hg; bored with hospitalization.
- D. 86-year-old; 48 hours postoperative repair of a fractured hip (nail inserted; alert; oriented; using patient-controlled analgesia (PCA) pump; temperature 96.8°F; heart rate 60 beats per minute; respirations 16 breaths per minute; blood pressure 90/62 mm Hg; talking with daughter.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A consultation with a Rapid Response Team (RRT) is most appropriate for the 45-year-old client described in Choice A. This client is 2 years post kidney transplant, presenting with no urine output for 6 hours, a temperature of 101.4°F, heart rate of 98 beats per minute, respirations of 20 breaths per minute, and a blood pressure of 88/72 mm Hg, along with restlessness. These clinical signs are indicative of possible acute renal failure and sepsis, requiring immediate intervention by the rapid response team. Choices B, C, and D do not present the same level of urgency and severity of symptoms as the client in Choice A, making them less appropriate for consultation with the RRT.