ATI RN
ATI RN Custom Exams Set 4
1. What is a primary intervention for managing hyperphosphatemia?
- A. Increasing calcium intake
- B. Increasing phosphorus intake
- C. Decreasing calcium intake
- D. Administering phosphate binders
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Administering phosphate binders is a primary intervention for managing hyperphosphatemia. Phosphate binders work by binding phosphorus in the gut, preventing its absorption. Increasing calcium intake (Choice A) is not a primary intervention for hyperphosphatemia and can actually exacerbate the condition by potentially raising calcium levels. Increasing phosphorus intake (Choice B) is contraindicated in hyperphosphatemia. Decreasing calcium intake (Choice C) may help manage hypercalcemia but is not the primary intervention for hyperphosphatemia.
2. Which nursing instruction should the nurse discuss with the client who is receiving glucocorticoids for Addison’s disease?
- A. Discuss the importance of tapering medications when discontinuing medication
- B. Explain that the dose will need to be decreased during times of stress or infection
- C. Instruct the client to take medication on an empty stomach with a glass of water
- D. Encourage the client to wear a MedicAlert bracelet and carry a card in the wallet
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because tapering glucocorticoids is crucial to prevent adrenal insufficiency, which can occur if the medication is stopped abruptly. Choice B is incorrect as it refers to dose adjustments during stress or infection, not discontinuation. Choice C is incorrect because it does not specifically address the issue of stopping the medication. Choice D is not directly related to the management of glucocorticoid therapy for Addison’s disease.
3. Which nursing action(s) can result in disciplinary action by state boards of nursing?
- A. Release of client health information to a client’s neighbor
- B. Delegation of a dressing change to unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP)
- C. Release of client health information to the client’s durable power of attorney
- D. A, B
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. Disclosing client health information to unauthorized individuals like a client's neighbor (A) and improper delegation of tasks to unlicensed personnel (B) are serious violations of patient confidentiality and safety standards, which can lead to disciplinary action by state boards of nursing. Choice C, releasing client health information to the client's durable power of attorney, is not a violation as it involves sharing information with an authorized individual. Therefore, choices A and B are incorrect, making D the correct answer.
4. The nurse is caring for a client in a sickle cell crisis. Which is the pain regimen of choice to relieve the pain?
- A. Frequent aspirin (acetylsalicylic acid) and a non-narcotic analgesic
- B. Motrin (ibuprofen), an NSAID, PRN
- C. Demerol (meperidine), a narcotic analgesic, every four (4) hours
- D. Morphine, a narcotic analgesic, every two (2) to three (3) hours PRN
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Morphine is the preferred analgesic in sickle cell crisis due to its potency and effectiveness in managing severe pain.
5. The nurse on the medical/surgical unit cares for a client with a diagnosis of cerebrovascular accident (CVA). The nursing assessment of the client’s neurological status should include which of the following? (Select all that apply)
- A. Obtain the pulses in all four extremities
- B. Ask the client to grasp and squeeze two fingers on each of the nurse’s hands
- C. Determine the client’s orientation to person, place, and time
- D. B, C
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct choices are B and C. Assessing grasp strength and orientation to person, place, and time are essential components of a neurological assessment after a CVA. Pulse assessment in all four extremities is more relevant to circulatory assessment rather than neurological status. Therefore, option A is incorrect.
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