Nursing Elites

1. What is a primary intervention for managing hyperphosphatemia?

• A. Increasing calcium intake
• B. Increasing phosphorus intake
• C. Decreasing calcium intake
• D. Administering phosphate binders

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Administering phosphate binders is a primary intervention for managing hyperphosphatemia. Phosphate binders work by binding phosphorus in the gut, preventing its absorption. Increasing calcium intake (Choice A) is not a primary intervention for hyperphosphatemia and can actually exacerbate the condition by potentially raising calcium levels. Increasing phosphorus intake (Choice B) is contraindicated in hyperphosphatemia. Decreasing calcium intake (Choice C) may help manage hypercalcemia but is not the primary intervention for hyperphosphatemia.

2. Which of the following statements does NOT apply to a nursing plan of care?

• A. It contains short-term goals
• B. It is developed by the patient's physician
• C. It must be continually evaluated
• D. It contains long-range goals

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. A nursing plan of care is developed by the nursing staff, not the patient's physician. Choice A is correct as nursing plans of care typically include short-term goals to address immediate patient needs. Choice C is correct because nursing plans of care must be continually evaluated and adjusted based on the patient's progress. Choice D is incorrect as nursing plans of care can include both short-term and long-range goals to address the patient's overall health and well-being.

3. What type of food should a patient taking anticoagulants be cautious about consuming?

• A. High-protein foods
• B. High-fiber foods
• C. High-vitamin K foods
• D. High-calcium foods

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Patients taking anticoagulants should be cautious about consuming high-vitamin K foods. Vitamin K can interfere with the effectiveness of anticoagulants by affecting blood clotting. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they do not directly interact with the action of anticoagulants.

4. The two members of the health care team who work closely to monitor drug-nutrient interactions are:

• A. Physician and nurse
• B. Physician and pharmacist
• C. Nurse and clinical dietitian
• D. Clinical dietitian and pharmacist

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Clinical dietitians and pharmacists are the key members of the healthcare team responsible for monitoring drug-nutrient interactions. Clinical dietitians assess patients' nutritional needs and develop appropriate diets that consider medication effects, while pharmacists provide expertise on medications and their interactions with nutrients. Physicians and nurses are essential healthcare providers but typically do not have the specialized knowledge required to manage drug-nutrient interactions, making choices A, B, and C incorrect.

5. During a synchronized cardioversion on a client in atrial fibrillation, when the machine is activated and there is a pause, what action should the nurse take?

• A. Wait until the machine discharges
• B. Shout “all clear” and don’t touch the bed
• C. Make sure the client is all right
• D. Increase the joules and re-discharge

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take when there is a pause after activating the machine for synchronized cardioversion on a client in atrial fibrillation is to shout “all clear” and not touch the bed. This step is crucial to ensure the safety of everyone present by warning them that the machine will discharge, preventing anyone from being inadvertently shocked. Waiting for the machine to discharge (choice A) is not recommended as it can lead to accidental injury. While ensuring the client is all right (choice C) is important, the immediate focus should be on safety during the procedure. Increasing the joules and re-discharging (choice D) without assessing the situation can pose risks to the client and the healthcare team.

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