ATI RN
ATI RN Custom Exams Set 2
1. The client diagnosed with diabetes mellitus type 2 is admitted to the hospital with cellulitis of the right foot secondary to an insect bite. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?
- A. Administer intravenous antibiotics
- B. Apply warm moist packs every two hours
- C. Elevate the right foot on two pillows
- D. Teach the client about skin and foot care
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Administering intravenous antibiotics is the priority intervention in this scenario. Cellulitis is a bacterial skin infection that requires prompt treatment with antibiotics to prevent its spread and potential complications. While warm moist packs and elevation can be beneficial as adjunct measures, they are not the initial priority. Teaching about skin and foot care is important, but it can be addressed after stabilizing the acute condition with antibiotics.
2. When is aspirin most effective when taken?
- A. On an empty stomach with cold water
- B. On a full stomach after a meal
- C. With a glass of fruit juice
- D. First thing in the morning
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Aspirin is best absorbed on an empty stomach to maximize its effectiveness. Taking it with cold water helps in its quick absorption. Option B is incorrect because taking aspirin on a full stomach can delay its absorption. Option C is incorrect as fruit juice may not provide the ideal conditions for absorption. Option D is incorrect as taking aspirin first thing in the morning may not ensure an empty stomach.
3. The nurse in the pediatric clinic performs a physical assessment of a 13-year-old boy. Which of the following findings by the nurse requires immediate intervention?
- A. The adolescent complains of his scrotum aching after exercise. The nurse palpates a worm-like mass above the testes.
- B. The nurse noted unilateral breast enlargement.
- C. The child’s scrotum appears swollen, and a soft mass is palpated. The nurse is unable to insert a finger above the mass.
- D. The child’s scrotum appears enlarged and red. The nurse palpated a thickened and swollen spermatic cord.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Choice D is the correct answer because a swollen and thickened spermatic cord could indicate testicular torsion, which is a surgical emergency. Testicular torsion occurs when the spermatic cord twists, cutting off the blood supply to the testicle. This condition requires immediate intervention to prevent testicular damage. Choices A, B, and C do not present findings that suggest a surgical emergency requiring immediate intervention.
4. For which client situation would a consultation with a rapid response team (RRT) be most appropriate?
- A. 45-year-old; 2 years post kidney transplant; second hospital day for treatment of pneumonia; no urine output for 6 hours; temperature 101.4°F; heart rate of 98 beats per minute; respirations 20 breaths per minute; blood pressure 88/72 mm Hg; is restless
- B. 72-year-old; 24 hours after removal of a chest tube that was used to drain pleural fluid (effusion); temperature 97.8°F; heart rate 92 beats per minute; respirations 28 breaths per minute; blood pressure 132/86 mm Hg; anxious about going home
- C. 56-year-old fourth hospital day after coronary artery bypass procedure; sore chest; pain with walking temperature 97°F; heart rate 84 beats per minute; respirations 22 breaths per minute; blood pressure 87/72 mm Hg; bored with hospitalization
- D. 86-year-old; 48 hours postoperative repair of fractured hip (nail inserted; alert; oriented; using patient-controlled analgesia (PCA) pump; temperature 96.8°F; heart rate 60 beats per minute; respirations 16 breaths per minute; blood pressure 90/62 mm Hg; talking with daughter
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. This client situation presents with concerning clinical signs such as no urine output post kidney transplant, elevated temperature, tachycardia, hypotension, and restlessness, suggestive of acute renal failure and sepsis. These signs necessitate immediate intervention by the rapid response team (RRT) to address the potentially life-threatening conditions. Choice B is incorrect as the client is stable after chest tube removal and primarily anxious about going home. Choice C is incorrect as the client's symptoms are related to postoperative recovery and boredom, not indicating an urgent need for RRT consultation. Choice D is incorrect as the client post hip repair is stable, alert, and interacting normally, without signs of acute deterioration requiring RRT involvement.
5. A family came to the emergency department with complaints of food poisoning. Which client should the nurse see first?
- A. 32-year-old with diarrhea for 6 hours
- B. 2-year-old with 1 wet diaper in 24 hours
- C. 40-year-old with abdominal cramping
- D. 10-year-old who is nauseated
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because a 2-year-old with reduced urine output (1 wet diaper in 24 hours) is at high risk for dehydration. Dehydration can occur rapidly in young children and can be life-threatening. The nurse should prioritize assessing and managing the dehydration of the 2-year-old. Choices A, C, and D, although they may also require attention, do not present the same level of immediate risk as a dehydrated 2-year-old.
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