ATI RN
ATI RN Custom Exams Set 1
1. The client is diagnosed with pericarditis. When assessing the client, the nurse is unable to auscultate a friction rub. Which action should the nurse implement?
- A. Notify the healthcare provider
- B. Document that the pericarditis has resolved
- C. Ask the client to lean forward and listen again
- D. Prepare to insert a unilateral chest tube
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to implement when unable to auscultate a pericardial friction rub in a client diagnosed with pericarditis is to ask the client to lean forward and listen again. Leaning forward can help bring the heart closer to the chest wall, making it easier to detect the rub. Option A (Notifying the healthcare provider) is incorrect because further assessment is needed before escalating the situation. Option B (Documenting that the pericarditis has resolved) is incorrect as the absence of a friction rub does not necessarily mean resolution. Option D (Preparing to insert a unilateral chest tube) is incorrect as this intervention is not indicated for the absence of a friction rub.
2. The nurse is caring for a client in a sickle cell crisis. Which is the pain regimen of choice to relieve the pain?
- A. Frequent aspirin (acetylsalicylic acid) and a non-narcotic analgesic
- B. Motrin (ibuprofen), an NSAID, PRN
- C. Demerol (meperidine), a narcotic analgesic, every four (4) hours
- D. Morphine, a narcotic analgesic, every two (2) to three (3) hours PRN
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Morphine is the preferred analgesic in sickle cell crisis due to its potency and effectiveness in managing severe pain.
3. Patients with gallbladder disease should reduce their intake of:
- A. Protein
- B. Sodium
- C. Cholesterol
- D. Fat
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Patients with gallbladder disease should reduce their intake of fat because high-fat foods can trigger gallbladder symptoms such as pain and indigestion. While proteins, sodium, and cholesterol may also need to be moderated for overall health, reducing fat intake is particularly crucial for managing gallbladder issues.
4. During a synchronized cardioversion on a client in atrial fibrillation, when the machine is activated and there is a pause, what action should the nurse take?
- A. Wait until the machine discharges
- B. Shout “all clear” and don’t touch the bed
- C. Make sure the client is all right
- D. Increase the joules and re-discharge
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take when there is a pause after activating the machine for synchronized cardioversion on a client in atrial fibrillation is to shout “all clear” and not touch the bed. This step is crucial to ensure the safety of everyone present by warning them that the machine will discharge, preventing anyone from being inadvertently shocked. Waiting for the machine to discharge (choice A) is not recommended as it can lead to accidental injury. While ensuring the client is all right (choice C) is important, the immediate focus should be on safety during the procedure. Increasing the joules and re-discharging (choice D) without assessing the situation can pose risks to the client and the healthcare team.
5. A client diagnosed with acute pancreatitis has developed a pseudocyst that ruptures. Which procedure should the nurse anticipate the healthcare provider ordering?
- A. Paracentesis
- B. Chest tube insertion
- C. Lumbar puncture
- D. Biopsy of the pancreas
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Chest tube insertion. A chest tube may be needed if a pancreatic pseudocyst ruptures into the pleural space, causing a pleural effusion. Paracentesis (choice A) involves the removal of fluid from the abdominal cavity, not typically indicated for a pancreatic pseudocyst. Lumbar puncture (choice C) is a procedure to collect cerebrospinal fluid from the spinal canal, not relevant to a pancreatic pseudocyst. Biopsy of the pancreas (choice D) is a diagnostic procedure to obtain tissue samples for examination and is not typically done in the context of a ruptured pseudocyst.
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