Nursing Elites

1. Determining nursing care priorities is a part of which of the following steps in determining and fulfilling the nursing care needs of the patient?

• A. Evaluation
• B. Planning
• C. Implementation
• D. Assessment

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Planning in nursing involves setting priorities based on the patient's needs, resources, and desired outcomes. It includes organizing and coordinating care activities to achieve the identified goals. Therefore, determining nursing care priorities is a key aspect of the planning phase.\n Incorrect Rationales:\n- Evaluation (Choice A) comes after implementing the care plan to assess the effectiveness of interventions and make necessary adjustments.\n- Implementation (Choice C) is the phase where the care plan is put into action, involving carrying out the nursing interventions designed during the planning phase.\n- Assessment (Choice D) is the initial step in the nursing process where data about the patient's health status is collected and analyzed to identify needs and formulate a care plan. It precedes planning and determining care priorities.

2. The nurse is teaching the client diagnosed with colon cancer who is scheduled for a colostomy the next day. Which behavior indicates the best method of applying adult teaching principles?

• A. The nurse repeats the information as indicated by the client’s questions
• B. The nurse teaches all the information needed by the client in one session
• C. The nurse uses a video to explain medical terms to the client
• D. The nurse waits until the client asks questions about the surgery

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Choice A is the correct answer because repeating information and addressing the client’s questions as they arise is an effective method for reinforcing learning in adults. This approach allows for immediate clarification and reinforcement of important points. Choice B is incorrect because teaching all the information in one session may be overwhelming for the client and hinder retention. Choice C is incorrect as using a video with medical terms may not necessarily address the client's specific questions or concerns. Choice D is also incorrect because waiting for the client to ask questions may lead to missed opportunities for providing crucial information and addressing uncertainties.

3. The nurse counsels a client diagnosed with iron deficiency anemia. The nurse determines that teaching is effective if the client selects which of the following menus?

• A. Roast beef, brown rice, green beans, carrot and raisin salad, and milk
• B. Cheese pizza, tossed green salad, oatmeal-raisin cookie, and lemonade
• C. Two scrambled eggs, bacon, white toast with strawberry jam, and coffee
• D. Corn flakes with milk, whole wheat toast, and orange juice

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Roast beef is high in heme iron, which is best absorbed and helps treat iron deficiency anemia. Choices B, C, and D do not contain significant amounts of heme iron or other iron-rich foods that would be beneficial in managing iron deficiency anemia. Cheese pizza, scrambled eggs, bacon, white toast, corn flakes, and whole wheat toast do not provide the necessary heme iron needed to address the client's condition.

4. What is a primary intervention for managing hyperphosphatemia?

• A. Increasing calcium intake
• B. Increasing phosphorus intake
• C. Decreasing calcium intake
• D. Administering phosphate binders

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Administering phosphate binders is a primary intervention for managing hyperphosphatemia. Phosphate binders work by binding phosphorus in the gut, preventing its absorption. Increasing calcium intake (Choice A) is not a primary intervention for hyperphosphatemia and can actually exacerbate the condition by potentially raising calcium levels. Increasing phosphorus intake (Choice B) is contraindicated in hyperphosphatemia. Decreasing calcium intake (Choice C) may help manage hypercalcemia but is not the primary intervention for hyperphosphatemia.

5. Which outcome should the nurse identify for the client diagnosed with fluid volume excess?

• A. The client will void a minimum of 30 mL per hour
• B. The client will have elastic skin turgor
• C. The client will have no adventitious breath sounds
• D. The client will have a serum creatinine of 1.4 mg/dL

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Absence of adventitious breath sounds indicates that fluid is not accumulating in the lungs, a key outcome in managing fluid volume excess. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. A client with fluid volume excess may not necessarily void a minimum of 30 mL per hour, have elastic skin turgor, or have a specific serum creatinine level. The absence of adventitious breath sounds is a more direct indicator of managing fluid volume excess.

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