ATI RN
ATI RN Custom Exams Set 2
1. Determining nursing care priorities is a part of which of the following steps in determining and fulfilling the nursing care needs of the patient?
- A. Evaluation
- B. Planning
- C. Implementation
- D. Assessment
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Planning in nursing involves setting priorities based on the patient's needs, resources, and desired outcomes. It includes organizing and coordinating care activities to achieve the identified goals. Therefore, determining nursing care priorities is a key aspect of the planning phase.\n Incorrect Rationales:\n- Evaluation (Choice A) comes after implementing the care plan to assess the effectiveness of interventions and make necessary adjustments.\n- Implementation (Choice C) is the phase where the care plan is put into action, involving carrying out the nursing interventions designed during the planning phase.\n- Assessment (Choice D) is the initial step in the nursing process where data about the patient's health status is collected and analyzed to identify needs and formulate a care plan. It precedes planning and determining care priorities.
2. Which lab test is used to assess renal function?
- A. Check blood glucose levels
- B. Monitor serum creatinine
- C. Monitor BUN
- D. Check electrolyte levels
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Monitor serum creatinine. Serum creatinine is a key indicator of renal function as it reflects the glomerular filtration rate. An increase in serum creatinine levels indicates impaired kidney function. Checking blood glucose levels (choice A) is not specific to assessing renal function but is used to diagnose diabetes. Monitoring BUN (choice C) is important but not as specific as serum creatinine in assessing renal function. Checking electrolyte levels (choice D) is essential in assessing kidney function but is not as specific as monitoring serum creatinine.
3. Which condition is often associated with a "ground-glass" appearance on a chest x-ray in neonates?
- A. Pneumonia
- B. Respiratory distress syndrome
- C. Bronchopulmonary dysplasia
- D. Congenital diaphragmatic hernia
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B, Respiratory distress syndrome. Respiratory distress syndrome often presents with a "ground-glass" appearance on a chest x-ray in neonates due to surfactant deficiency. Choice A, Pneumonia, typically appears as patchy infiltrates on chest x-ray. Choice C, Bronchopulmonary dysplasia, is characterized by hyperinflation and fibrosis, not a ground-glass appearance. Choice D, Congenital diaphragmatic hernia, usually shows mediastinal shift and bowel loops in the chest cavity on x-ray, not a ground-glass appearance.
4. The unique clinical presentation of a 3-month-old infant in the emergency department leads the care team to suspect botulism. Which assessment question posed to the parents is likely to be most useful in the differential diagnosis?
- A. Have you ever given your child any honey or honey-containing products?
- B. Is there any family history of neuromuscular diseases?
- C. Has your baby ever been directly exposed to any chemical cleaning products?
- D. Is there any mold in your home that you know of?
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Botulism in infants is often linked to honey consumption. Asking the parents if they have ever given their child any honey or honey-containing products can provide crucial information for the differential diagnosis. This is important because infant botulism is commonly associated with the ingestion of honey contaminated with Clostridium botulinum spores. Choices B, C, and D are less relevant to botulism in infants as they do not directly relate to the typical causes of the condition. Family history of neuromuscular diseases (choice B) may be important for other conditions but not specifically for infant botulism. Direct exposure to chemical cleaning products (choice C) and the presence of mold in the home (choice D) are not typical risk factors for infant botulism.
5. Which of the following is an example of a primary prevention strategy?
- A. Administering vaccinations
- B. Performing a surgical procedure
- C. Teaching healthy lifestyle choices
- D. Prescribing medication
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Administering vaccinations is indeed an example of a primary prevention strategy. Primary prevention aims to prevent the occurrence of a disease or injury before it occurs by targeting the entire population or specific high-risk groups. Vaccinations help prevent the initial development of a disease by enhancing immunity against specific pathogens. Choices B, C, and D are not examples of primary prevention strategies. Performing a surgical procedure (Choice B) is a treatment intervention, not a preventive measure. Teaching healthy lifestyle choices (Choice C) falls under health promotion and education, which is more aligned with secondary prevention. Prescribing medication (Choice D) is typically associated with treatment rather than preventing the initial onset of a disease.