Nursing Elites

1. For which client situation would a consultation with a rapid response team (RRT) be most appropriate?

• A. 45-year-old; 2 years post kidney transplant; second hospital day for treatment of pneumonia; no urine output for 6 hours; temperature 101.4°F; heart rate of 98 beats per minute; respirations 20 breaths per minute; blood pressure 88/72 mm Hg; is restless
• B. 72-year-old; 24 hours after removal of a chest tube that was used to drain pleural fluid (effusion); temperature 97.8°F; heart rate 92 beats per minute; respirations 28 breaths per minute; blood pressure 132/86 mm Hg; anxious about going home
• C. 56-year-old fourth hospital day after coronary artery bypass procedure; sore chest; pain with walking temperature 97°F; heart rate 84 beats per minute; respirations 22 breaths per minute; blood pressure 87/72 mm Hg; bored with hospitalization
• D. 86-year-old; 48 hours postoperative repair of fractured hip (nail inserted; alert; oriented; using patient-controlled analgesia (PCA) pump; temperature 96.8°F; heart rate 60 beats per minute; respirations 16 breaths per minute; blood pressure 90/62 mm Hg; talking with daughter

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. This client situation presents with concerning clinical signs such as no urine output post kidney transplant, elevated temperature, tachycardia, hypotension, and restlessness, suggestive of acute renal failure and sepsis. These signs necessitate immediate intervention by the rapid response team (RRT) to address the potentially life-threatening conditions. Choice B is incorrect as the client is stable after chest tube removal and primarily anxious about going home. Choice C is incorrect as the client's symptoms are related to postoperative recovery and boredom, not indicating an urgent need for RRT consultation. Choice D is incorrect as the client post hip repair is stable, alert, and interacting normally, without signs of acute deterioration requiring RRT involvement.

2. Which endocrine disorder would the nurse assess for in the client who has a closed head injury with increased intracranial pressure?

• A. Pheochromocytoma
• B. Diabetes insipidus
• C. Hashimoto's disease
• D. Gynecomastia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B, Diabetes insipidus. Diabetes insipidus can develop after a head injury due to damage to the hypothalamus or pituitary gland, leading to a deficiency in antidiuretic hormone (ADH). Pheochromocytoma (Choice A) is a tumor of the adrenal gland that causes excessive release of catecholamines, leading to hypertension. Hashimoto's disease (Choice C) is an autoimmune condition affecting the thyroid gland. Gynecomastia (Choice D) refers to the enlargement of breast tissue in males and is not directly related to a closed head injury with increased intracranial pressure.

3. The nurse is preparing the plan of care for a client with fluid volume deficit. Which interventions should the nurse include in the plan of care?

• A. Monitor vital signs every two (2) hours until stable
• B. Weigh the client in the same clothing at the same time daily
• C. Administer mouth care every eight (8) hours
• D. A, B, and C

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct interventions to include in the plan of care for a client with fluid volume deficit are monitoring vital signs every two hours until stable, weighing the client in the same clothing at the same time daily, and assessing skin turgor. These interventions are crucial for managing and detecting fluid volume changes. Administering mouth care every eight hours is not directly related to managing fluid volume deficit and does not address the key aspects of monitoring and assessing fluid status, making it an incorrect choice.

4. The nurse instructs a client 5 days after a lumbar laminectomy with spinal fusion about how to move from a supine position to standing at the left side of the bed with a walker. Which of the following directions by the nurse is BEST?

• A. Raise the head of the bed so you are sitting straight up, bend your knees, and swing your legs to the side and then to the floor
• B. Rock your body from side to side, going further each time until you build up enough momentum to be lying on your right side, and then raise your trunk toward your toes
• C. Reach over to the left side rail with your right hand, pull your body onto its side, bend your upper leg so the foot is on the bed, and push down to elevate your trunk
• D. Focus on using your arms, the left elbow as a pivot with the left hand grasping the mattress edge and the right hand pushing on the mattress above the elbow, then slide your legs over the side of the mattress

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct method described in option C helps maintain spinal alignment while moving from a lying to a standing position, which is crucial after a lumbar laminectomy with spinal fusion. This technique minimizes strain on the back and promotes safe movement. Choices A, B, and D involve movements that could potentially strain the back, increase the risk of injury, or compromise the spinal alignment, making them less optimal for the client recovering from such surgery.

5. The nurse counsels a client diagnosed with iron deficiency anemia. The nurse determines that teaching is effective if the client selects which of the following menus?

• A. Roast beef, brown rice, green beans, carrot and raisin salad, and milk
• B. Cheese pizza, tossed green salad, oatmeal-raisin cookie, and lemonade
• C. Two scrambled eggs, bacon, white toast with strawberry jam, and coffee
• D. Corn flakes with milk, whole wheat toast, and orange juice

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Roast beef is high in heme iron, which is best absorbed and helps treat iron deficiency anemia. Choices B, C, and D do not contain significant amounts of heme iron or other iron-rich foods that would be beneficial in managing iron deficiency anemia. Cheese pizza, scrambled eggs, bacon, white toast, corn flakes, and whole wheat toast do not provide the necessary heme iron needed to address the client's condition.

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