Nursing Elites

1. Which type of diet is recommended for patients with diverticulitis during an acute flare-up?

• A. High-fiber
• B. Low-residue
• C. Low-fat
• D. High-protein

Correct answer: B

Rationale: During an acute flare-up of diverticulitis, a low-residue diet is recommended. This diet helps reduce bowel movements and minimizes irritants in the colon, which can help alleviate symptoms and promote healing. High-fiber diets, like choice A, are typically recommended for diverticulosis prevention but may exacerbate symptoms during a flare-up due to increased bulk in the stool. Low-fat (choice C) and high-protein (choice D) diets are not specifically indicated for diverticulitis flare-ups.

2. Which risk factor would the nurse expect to find in the client diagnosed with pancreatic cancer?

• A. Chewing tobacco
• B. Low-fat diet
• C. Chronic alcoholism
• D. Exposure to industrial chemicals

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Chronic alcoholism. Chronic alcoholism is a significant risk factor for pancreatic cancer as alcohol has a damaging effect on the pancreas. Chewing tobacco (choice A) is associated with oral and throat cancers, not specifically pancreatic cancer. A low-fat diet (choice B) is generally considered a healthier choice and not a direct risk factor for pancreatic cancer. Exposure to industrial chemicals (choice D) may be linked to other types of cancers but is not a major risk factor for pancreatic cancer.

3. Which potential complication should the nurse assess for in the client with infective endocarditis who has embolization of vegetative lesions from the mitral valve?

• A. Pulmonary embolism
• B. Decreased urine output
• C. Hemoptysis
• D. Deep vein thrombosis

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Decreased urine output.' Embolization of vegetative lesions from the mitral valve can cause renal infarction, leading to a decrease in urine output. This complication is due to the obstruction of blood flow to the kidneys. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because embolization from the mitral valve typically does not directly cause pulmonary embolism, hemoptysis, or deep vein thrombosis.

4. The nurse supervises care of a client in Buck’s traction. The nurse determines that care is appropriate if which of the following is observed? (Select all that apply)

• A. The nurse removes the foam boot three times per day to inspect the skin
• B. The staff turn the client to the unaffected side
• C. The staff turn the client to the unaffected side and the nurse asks the client to dorsiflex the foot on the affected leg
• D. The nurse asks the client to dorsiflex the foot on the affected leg

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Correct care for a client in Buck’s traction includes turning the client to the unaffected side to prevent complications such as pressure ulcers. Additionally, asking the client to dorsiflex the foot on the affected leg helps prevent foot drop. Removing the foam boot three times per day to inspect the skin is unnecessary and could disrupt the traction, so it is not appropriate. Therefore, choices A and D are incorrect.

5. Which outcome should the nurse identify for the client diagnosed with fluid volume excess?

• A. The client will void a minimum of 30 mL per hour
• B. The client will have elastic skin turgor
• C. The client will have no adventitious breath sounds
• D. The client will have a serum creatinine of 1.4 mg/dL

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct outcome for a client diagnosed with fluid volume excess is the absence of adventitious breath sounds. This indicates that fluid is not accumulating in the lungs, a crucial sign in managing fluid volume excess. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because voiding a specific amount of urine, having elastic skin turgor, and a serum creatinine level do not directly relate to managing fluid volume excess.

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