Nursing Elites

1. A client has been given instructions about ferrous sulfate. Which statement made by the client would indicate the client needs further education?

• A. I will take this medication on an empty stomach.
• B. I will take the morning dose 1 hour before breakfast.
• C. I will need to avoid taking this medication with coffee.
• D. I will take antacids if needed, 2 hours after I take ferrous sulfate.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Ferrous sulfate should be taken on an empty stomach to improve absorption. Choice A is incorrect as taking the medication with a full glass of milk would impair iron absorption. Choices B, C, and D are all correct statements regarding the administration of ferrous sulfate. Choice B ensures proper timing before breakfast, choice C highlights avoiding coffee due to interference with iron absorption, and choice D correctly suggests taking antacids a few hours after ferrous sulfate to prevent potential interactions.

2. What is a primary intervention for managing hyperphosphatemia?

• A. Increasing calcium intake
• B. Increasing phosphorus intake
• C. Decreasing calcium intake
• D. Administering phosphate binders

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Administering phosphate binders is a primary intervention for managing hyperphosphatemia. Phosphate binders work by binding phosphorus in the gut, preventing its absorption. Increasing calcium intake (Choice A) is not a primary intervention for hyperphosphatemia and can actually exacerbate the condition by potentially raising calcium levels. Increasing phosphorus intake (Choice B) is contraindicated in hyperphosphatemia. Decreasing calcium intake (Choice C) may help manage hypercalcemia but is not the primary intervention for hyperphosphatemia.

3. Whenever possible, patients evacuated from the theater of operations who are expected to return within 60 days are admitted to which of the following?

• A. Civilian hospitals participating in the National Disaster Medical System
• B. DOD tri-service hospitals
• C. Department of Veterans Affairs hospitals
• D. Temporary field hospitals

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Patients evacuated from the theater of operations and expected to return within 60 days are admitted to DOD tri-service hospitals. These hospitals are well-equipped to handle military personnel and are strategically placed for operational efficiency. Choice A, civilian hospitals participating in the National Disaster Medical System, may not have the specialized care and resources required for military personnel. Choice C, Department of Veterans Affairs hospitals, cater to veterans rather than active-duty personnel in theater. Choice D, temporary field hospitals, might not provide the comprehensive care and resources needed for an extended period of treatment.

4. Listed below are five categories that identify the responsibilities of the practical nurse manager in personnel management. Which of these categories is most appropriate for the task of 'Educate personnel on UCMJ'?

• A. Accountability
• B. Personal/professional development
• C. Individual training
• D. Military appearance/physical condition

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is 'B: Personal/professional development.' Educating personnel on the Uniform Code of Military Justice (UCMJ) falls under the realm of personal/professional development, as it aims to enhance the knowledge and skills of individuals regarding military laws and regulations. Choice A, 'Accountability,' focuses more on responsibility and answerability rather than education. Choice C, 'Individual training,' is more specific to skill development and job-related learning rather than legal education. Choice D, 'Military appearance/physical condition,' pertains to maintaining physical standards and appearance, which is unrelated to educating personnel on UCMJ.

5. The nurse is caring for a client whose religious background is Seventh Day Adventist (Church of GOD). Which nursing action(s) are most appropriate in terms of providing for the dietary needs of this client? Select all that apply.

• A. Providing snacks between meals
• B. Removing coffee from the breakfast tray
• C. Ensuring that there is no pork on the dinner tray
• D. A, B

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Seventh Day Adventists typically avoid caffeine and pork, so providing snacks between meals and removing coffee from the breakfast tray are appropriate actions to meet the dietary needs of this client. Providing snacks helps ensure the client has options that align with their dietary restrictions, while removing coffee respects their avoidance of caffeine. Ensuring that there is no pork on the dinner tray is also crucial as pork is typically avoided in their diet, making choice C correct. Therefore, choices A and B are correct, making D the most appropriate selection.

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