Nursing Elites

1. For a patient on lithium therapy, which dietary recommendation is essential?

• A. Increase caffeine intake
• B. Increase sodium intake
• C. Increase protein intake
• D. Increase fiber intake

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to increase sodium intake. For patients on lithium therapy, maintaining consistent sodium intake is crucial to avoid fluctuations in drug levels. Increasing caffeine intake (choice A) is not recommended as it can interfere with lithium levels. While protein intake (choice C) is important for overall health, it is not specifically essential for patients on lithium therapy. Similarly, increasing fiber intake (choice D) is beneficial but not a primary concern for patients on lithium therapy.

2. Which electrolyte imbalance is a potential side effect of diuretics?

• A. Hyperkalemia
• B. Hypercalcemia
• C. Hypomagnesemia
• D. Hypokalemia

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, Hypokalemia. Diuretics commonly cause hypokalemia due to increased urinary excretion of potassium. Hyperkalemia (Choice A) is the opposite, characterized by high potassium levels and is not typically associated with diuretics. Hypercalcemia (Choice B) is an elevated calcium level, which is not a common side effect of diuretics. Hypomagnesemia (Choice C) is low magnesium levels, which can be a side effect of diuretics, but the most common electrolyte imbalance associated with diuretics is hypokalemia.

3. The use of the antibiotic neomycin may decrease the absorption of:

• A. Iron, copper, and zinc
• B. Protein and amino acids
• C. Fat-soluble vitamins
• D. Water-soluble vitamins

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Neomycin can interfere with the absorption of fat-soluble vitamins such as vitamins A, D, E, and K. Choice A is incorrect because neomycin does not affect the absorption of iron, copper, and zinc. Choice B is incorrect as neomycin does not impact the absorption of protein and amino acids. Choice D is also incorrect as neomycin does not decrease the absorption of water-soluble vitamins like vitamin C and the B vitamins.

4. Which outcome should the nurse identify for the client diagnosed with fluid volume excess?

• A. The client will void a minimum of 30 mL per hour
• B. The client will have elastic skin turgor
• C. The client will have no adventitious breath sounds
• D. The client will have a serum creatinine of 1.4 mg/dL

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Absence of adventitious breath sounds indicates that fluid is not accumulating in the lungs, a key outcome in managing fluid volume excess. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. A client with fluid volume excess may not necessarily void a minimum of 30 mL per hour, have elastic skin turgor, or have a specific serum creatinine level. The absence of adventitious breath sounds is a more direct indicator of managing fluid volume excess.

5. The nurse is caring for the client recovering from intestinal surgery. Which assessment finding would require immediate intervention?

• A. Presence of thin pink drainage in the Jackson Pratt
• B. Guarding when the nurse touches the abdomen
• C. Tenderness around the surgical site during palpation
• D. Complaints of chills and feeling feverish

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Complaints of chills and feeling feverish may indicate infection, which requires immediate intervention. This finding suggests a systemic response to infection, which can be life-threatening if not promptly addressed. Options A, B, and C are common postoperative findings and may not necessarily require immediate intervention unless accompanied by other concerning signs or symptoms.

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