Nursing Elites

1. The system used at the division level and forward is comprised of six basic modules. Which module is composed of a dental officer, dental specialist, x-ray specialist, laboratory specialist, and needed equipment?

• A. Treatment squad
• B. Area support squad
• C. Medical service squad
• D. Dental squad

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, Dental squad. The Dental squad is composed of a dental officer, dental specialist, x-ray specialist, laboratory specialist, and necessary equipment. This module specifically focuses on dental care and services. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not include the specific specialists mentioned in the question or focus on dental services.

2. Which of the following is a potential side effect associated with the use of nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs?

• A. Stomach irritation and bleeding
• B. Stomatitis and esophagitis
• C. Impaired folate absorption
• D. Increased potassium excretion

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Stomach irritation and bleeding. Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) can cause stomach irritation and bleeding due to their effects on gastric mucosa. Stomatitis and esophagitis (Choice B) are not typically associated with NSAID use. While NSAIDs may affect renal function, leading to fluid retention and edema, they do not directly cause increased potassium excretion (Choice D). Impaired folate absorption (Choice C) is not a common side effect of NSAIDs.

3. The nurse is teaching the client diagnosed with colon cancer who is scheduled for a colostomy the next day. Which behavior indicates the best method of applying adult teaching principles?

• A. The nurse repeats the information as indicated by the client’s questions
• B. The nurse teaches all the information needed by the client in one session
• C. The nurse uses a video to explain with medical terms to the client
• D. The nurse waits until the client asks questions about the surgery

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Choice A is the best method of applying adult teaching principles because repeating information and addressing the client’s questions as they arise is effective for reinforcing learning in adults. This approach allows for clarification of doubts and ensures that the client understands the information provided. Choice B is incorrect as teaching all the information in one session may overwhelm the client and hinder retention. Choice C is incorrect as using medical terms without ensuring the client's understanding may lead to confusion. Choice D is incorrect because waiting for the client to ask questions may result in missed opportunities to address important information proactively.

4. During synchronized cardioversion on a client in atrial fibrillation, when the machine is activated, and there is a pause, what action should the nurse take?

• A. Wait until the machine discharges
• B. Shout “all clear” and don’t touch the bed
• C. Make sure the client is all right
• D. Increase the joules and re-discharge

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take when there is a pause after the machine is activated during synchronized cardioversion is to shout “all clear” and ensure that no one is touching the client or the bed to prevent them from being shocked. This step is crucial for the safety of everyone present during the procedure. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because waiting without confirming safety, focusing on the client's condition only, or increasing joules without safety precautions can lead to potential harm or injury.

5. The nurse on the postsurgical unit received a client that was transferred from the post-anesthesia care unit (PACU) and is planning care for this client. The nurse understands that staff should begin planning for this client’s discharge at which point during the hospitalization?

• A. Is admitted to the surgical unit
• B. Is transferred from the PACU to the postsurgical unit
• C. Is able to perform activities of daily living independently
• D. Has been assessed by the healthcare provider for the first time after surgery

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Discharge planning should begin as soon as the patient is admitted to the surgical unit to ensure a smooth transition. Option A is the correct choice because it marks the initial point in the hospitalization process where discharge planning should start. Options B, C, and D are not the ideal points to begin discharge planning. Option B only signifies a transfer within the hospital, while Option C relates to the patient's independence in activities of daily living, which is not directly linked to discharge planning. Option D, having the patient assessed by the healthcare provider for the first time after surgery, is unrelated to the timing of discharge planning.

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