ATI RN
ATI RN Custom Exams Set 5
1. The nurse in the pediatric clinic performs a physical assessment of a 13-year-old boy. Which of the following findings by the nurse requires immediate intervention?
- A. The adolescent complains of his scrotum aching after exercise. The nurse palpates a worm-like mass above the testes.
- B. The nurse noted unilateral breast enlargement.
- C. The child’s scrotum appears swollen, and a soft mass is palpated. The nurse is unable to insert a finger above the mass.
- D. The child’s scrotum appears enlarged and red. The nurse palpated a thickened and swollen spermatic cord.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Choice D is the correct answer because a swollen and thickened spermatic cord could indicate testicular torsion, which is a surgical emergency. Testicular torsion occurs when the spermatic cord twists, cutting off the blood supply to the testicle. This condition requires immediate intervention to prevent testicular damage. Choices A, B, and C do not present findings that suggest a surgical emergency requiring immediate intervention.
2. Which of the following is a specialized medical treatment and teaching facility that provides general and specialized medical and dental care and treatment?
- A. CONUS
- B. MEDCEN
- C. MEDCOM
- D. MEDDAC
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B, 'MEDCEN.' A MEDCEN (Medical Center) is a specialized medical treatment and teaching facility that offers general and specialized medical and dental care. Choice A, 'CONUS,' refers to the continental United States and is not related to medical facilities. Choice C, 'MEDCOM,' stands for Medical Command, which is an administrative entity responsible for overseeing medical units, not providing direct care. Choice D, 'MEDDAC,' refers to Medical Department Activity, which is a smaller medical unit compared to a MEDCEN and may not provide the same level of specialized care.
3. The nurse is caring for a client on strict bed rest. Which intervention is the priority when caring for this client?
- A. Encourage the client to drink liquids
- B. Perform active range of motion exercises
- C. Elevate the head of the bed to 45 degrees
- D. Provide a high-fiber diet to the client
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Performing active range of motion exercises is the priority intervention for a client on strict bed rest. These exercises help prevent complications such as thromboembolism and muscle atrophy by promoting circulation and maintaining muscle strength. Encouraging liquids, elevating the head of the bed, and providing a high-fiber diet are important interventions but not the priority when compared to preventing serious complications associated with immobility.
4. The nurse is analyzing laboratory values for the assigned clients. Which finding, based on the client's medical history, indicates the need for immediate follow-up?
- A. Client with chronic kidney disease and serum creatinine of 1.6 mg/dL
- B. Client with diabetes mellitus and a glycosylated hemoglobin A1c (HbA1c) of 7.0%
- C. Client with heart failure and a B-type natriuretic peptide (BNP) of 140 pg/mL
- D. Client who is male and has anemia with hemoglobin of 16.5 g/dL and hematocrit of 45%
Correct answer: B
Rationale: An HbA1c of 7.0% in a client with diabetes mellitus indicates poor long-term glucose control, necessitating immediate follow-up. Choice A, chronic kidney disease with a serum creatinine of 1.6 mg/dL, though concerning, does not indicate an immediate need for follow-up. Choice C, heart failure with a BNP of 140 pg/mL, may require monitoring but not immediate follow-up. Choice D, a male client with anemia and normal hemoglobin and hematocrit levels, does not warrant immediate attention based on the provided information.
5. The nurse writes a problem of “potential for complication related to ovarian hyperstimulation” for a client who is taking clomiphene (Clomid), an ovarian stimulant. Which intervention should be included in the plan of care?
- A. Instruct the client to delay intercourse until menses
- B. Schedule the client for frequent pelvic sonograms
- C. Explain that the infusion therapy will take 21 days
- D. Discuss that this may cause an ectopic pregnancy
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Frequent pelvic sonograms help monitor for ovarian hyperstimulation, a serious potential side effect of clomiphene. Instructing the client to delay intercourse until menses (choice A) is not directly related to monitoring or managing ovarian hyperstimulation. Explaining the duration of infusion therapy (choice C) is not relevant to the potential complication of ovarian hyperstimulation. Discussing the risk of ectopic pregnancy (choice D) is important but not the most appropriate intervention for managing ovarian hyperstimulation.
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