ATI RN
ATI RN Custom Exams Set 5
1. When does the nurse act as a client advocate?
- A. Pulling the curtain around the client's bed while changing a dressing
- B. Contacting the health care provider to request a meeting for the client
- C. Ensuring access to medical information by appropriate personnel only
- D. All of the above
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, 'All of the above.' Acting as a client advocate involves various actions to protect the client's rights and well-being. Pulling the curtain around the client's bed while changing a dressing ensures privacy and dignity. Contacting the health care provider to request a meeting for the client facilitates communication and addresses the client's needs. Ensuring access to medical information by appropriate personnel only safeguards the client's confidentiality and privacy. Therefore, all the actions mentioned in choices A, B, and C are examples of a nurse acting as a client advocate, making D the correct answer.
2. Which endocrine disorder would the nurse assess for in a client who has a closed head injury with increased intracranial pressure?
- A. Pheochromocytoma
- B. Diabetes insipidus
- C. Hashimoto’s disease
- D. Gynecomastia
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B, Diabetes insipidus. Diabetes insipidus can develop after a head injury due to damage to the hypothalamus or pituitary gland, leading to a deficiency in antidiuretic hormone (ADH). Pheochromocytoma (choice A) is a tumor of the adrenal gland and is not directly related to closed head injury or increased intracranial pressure. Hashimoto’s disease (choice C) is an autoimmune disorder affecting the thyroid gland, not commonly associated with head injuries. Gynecomastia (choice D) is the development of breast tissue in males and is not an endocrine disorder typically linked to closed head injuries.
3. The nurse is caring for clients on a cardiac floor. Which client should the nurse assess first?
- A. The client with three (3) unifocal PVCs in a minute
- B. The client diagnosed with coronary artery disease who wants to ambulate
- C. The client diagnosed with mitral valve prolapse with an audible S3
- D. The client diagnosed with pericarditis who is in normal sinus rhythm
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because an audible S3 in a client with mitral valve prolapse could indicate heart failure and requires immediate assessment. Choice A is not as urgent as an audible S3 in mitral valve prolapse. Choice B, a client with coronary artery disease wanting to ambulate, does not present an immediate concern compared to a potential heart failure indicated by an audible S3. Choice D, a client with pericarditis in normal sinus rhythm, is stable and does not require immediate attention when compared to a potential heart failure situation signified by an audible S3 in mitral valve prolapse.
4. Which of the following is a common side effect of the drug metformin?
- A. Weight loss
- B. Weight gain
- C. Drowsiness
- D. Hypertension
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A, weight loss. Metformin is commonly associated with weight loss as a side effect rather than weight gain. Metformin works by decreasing glucose production in the liver and improving insulin sensitivity, which can lead to weight loss. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because weight gain, drowsiness, and hypertension are not typically common side effects of metformin.
5. Where do most peptic ulcers occur?
- A. Esophagus
- B. Stomach
- C. Duodenum
- D. Jejunum
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Most peptic ulcers occur in the duodenum, particularly in cases of duodenal ulcers. Peptic ulcers are most commonly found in the duodenum or the first part of the small intestine. While ulcers can also occur in the esophagus and stomach, they are predominantly located in the duodenum. Therefore, options A, B, and D are incorrect.