the nurse acts as a client advocate in which situations
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI RN Custom Exams Set 5

1. When does the nurse act as a client advocate?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, 'All of the above.' Acting as a client advocate involves various actions to protect the client's rights and well-being. Pulling the curtain around the client's bed while changing a dressing ensures privacy and dignity. Contacting the health care provider to request a meeting for the client facilitates communication and addresses the client's needs. Ensuring access to medical information by appropriate personnel only safeguards the client's confidentiality and privacy. Therefore, all the actions mentioned in choices A, B, and C are examples of a nurse acting as a client advocate, making D the correct answer.

2. Which laboratory data indicate the client’s pancreatitis is improving?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Amylase and lipase are enzymes specifically related to pancreatitis. A decrease in their serum levels indicates improvement in pancreatitis. White blood cell count (WBC), choices C and D, are not direct markers for pancreatitis improvement. Bilirubin levels, choice C, are more related to liver function rather than pancreatitis. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) level, choice D, is a marker for kidney function, not pancreatitis.

3. The client is diagnosed with pericarditis. When assessing the client, the nurse is unable to auscultate a friction rub. Which action should the nurse implement?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take when unable to auscultate a pericardial friction rub in a client diagnosed with pericarditis is to ask the client to lean forward and listen again. This position brings the heart closer to the chest wall, making it easier to detect a friction rub if present. Notifying the healthcare provider is not necessary at this point as it may just be a matter of positioning for better auscultation. Documenting that the pericarditis has resolved is premature without proper assessment. Preparing to insert a unilateral chest tube is not indicated based on the absence of a friction rub.

4. What is the COMMZ level hospital whose principal mission is to treat and rehabilitate those patients who can return to duty within the stated theater evacuation policy?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: GH (General Hospital). General Hospitals have the principal mission of treating and rehabilitating patients who can return to duty within the theater evacuation policy. FSB (Forward Surgical Hospital), CSH (Combat Support Hospital), and FH (Field Hospital) do not focus on treating and rehabilitating patients for duty within the theater evacuation policy, making them incorrect choices.

5. The nurse is caring for clients on a cardiac floor. Which client should the nurse assess first?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because an audible S3 in a client with mitral valve prolapse could indicate heart failure and requires immediate assessment. Choice A is not as urgent as an audible S3 in mitral valve prolapse. Choice B, a client with coronary artery disease wanting to ambulate, does not present an immediate concern compared to a potential heart failure indicated by an audible S3. Choice D, a client with pericarditis in normal sinus rhythm, is stable and does not require immediate attention when compared to a potential heart failure situation signified by an audible S3 in mitral valve prolapse.

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