for a patient with a history of liver disease which type of diet is most appropriate
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI RN Custom Exams Set 4

1. For a patient with a history of liver disease, which type of diet is most appropriate?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: For a patient with a history of liver disease, a low-fat diet is most appropriate. Liver disease can impair fat metabolism, leading to fat accumulation in the liver cells and worsening the condition. A low-fat diet helps reduce stress on the liver and manage symptoms associated with liver disease. High-protein diets may not be suitable for individuals with liver disease as they can increase the risk of hepatic encephalopathy. High-carbohydrate diets may lead to insulin resistance and fat accumulation in the liver. While protein restriction may be necessary in some cases, a balanced intake of high-quality protein is essential for maintaining muscle mass and overall health, making a low-protein diet not the most appropriate choice for all patients with liver disease.

2. Which electrolyte imbalance is a potential side effect of diuretics?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, Hypokalemia. Diuretics commonly lead to hypokalemia, which is low potassium levels in the body. Hyperkalemia (choice A) is the opposite, indicating high potassium levels. Hypercalcemia (choice B) refers to elevated calcium levels, not typically associated with diuretics. Hypomagnesemia (choice C) is low magnesium levels and can also be a consequence of diuretic use, but potassium imbalance is more common.

3. The nurse is caring for a client on strict bed rest. Which intervention is the priority when caring for this client?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to perform active range of motion exercises. When a client is on strict bed rest, performing range of motion exercises is a priority to prevent complications such as thromboembolism and muscle atrophy. Option A may be important but not the priority compared to maintaining mobility. Option C is incorrect because elevating the head of the bed to 45 degrees is not necessary for a client on strict bed rest. Option D, providing a high-fiber diet, is also not the priority intervention compared to ensuring range of motion exercises are performed.

4. The Practical Nurse Course is a training program conducted in phases that cover what period of time?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: 52 weeks. The Practical Nurse Course is typically conducted over a period of 52 weeks. This duration allows for comprehensive training in various aspects of nursing. Choice A, 46 weeks, is incorrect as it falls short of the standard duration of the course. Choice B, 18 months, is incorrect as it represents a longer timeframe than the typical duration of the course. Choice C, 6 weeks, is incorrect as it is too short for the comprehensive training provided in a Practical Nurse Course.

5. Who is the first individual in the combat health support chain to make medically substantiated decisions based on military occupational specialty-specific medical training?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The Physician Assistant is the first individual in the combat health support chain to make medically substantiated decisions based on their military occupational specialty-specific medical training. While physicians are highly trained medical professionals, in the context of combat health support, the Physician Assistant is typically the frontline provider who directly applies their specific military medical training to make decisions. Combat medics and combat lifesavers may provide critical care in the field, but they do not have the same level of training and scope of practice as a Physician Assistant in this context, making them less likely to be the first to make medically substantiated decisions.

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