Nursing Elites

1. The client is complaining of painful swallowing secondary to mouth ulcers. Which statement by the client indicates appropriate management?

• A. “I will brush my teeth with a soft-bristle toothbrush.”
• B. “I will rinse my mouth with Listerine mouthwash.”
• C. “I will swish my antifungal solution and then swallow.”
• D. “I will avoid spicy foods, tobacco, and alcohol.”

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Avoiding irritants like spicy foods, tobacco, and alcohol is crucial in managing mouth ulcers as they can further irritate the ulcers and delay healing. Choices A, B, and C could potentially worsen the condition. Brushing with a soft-bristle toothbrush may cause discomfort, rinsing with Listerine mouthwash can be too harsh on the ulcers, and swallowing antifungal solution is not recommended unless specified by a healthcare provider.

2. The nurse has given post-procedure instructions to a client who underwent a colonoscopy. Evaluation of learning would be evident if the client makes which statement(s)?

• A. All of the above
• B. “My abdominal muscles may be tender because of the procedure.”
• C. “My diet should be light at first, and then I can progress to a regular diet.”
• D. “It is normal to feel gassy or bloated for a short while after the procedure.”

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: "All of the above." Evaluation of learning after a colonoscopy would be evident if the client mentions all the statements provided. Mild tenderness in the abdominal muscles, starting with a light diet and progressing to a regular diet, and experiencing gas or bloating temporarily are all expected after a colonoscopy. Therefore, all the statements are correct in demonstrating the client's understanding of the post-procedure instructions. Choices B, C, and D provide accurate information about the expected outcomes following a colonoscopy, making them incorrect answers individually but correct when combined as option A.

3. The client diagnosed with acute vein thrombosis is receiving a continuous heparin drip, an intravenous anticoagulant. The health care provider orders warfarin (Coumadin), an oral anticoagulant. Which action should the nurse take?

• A. Discontinue the heparin drip before initiating the Coumadin
• B. Check the client’s INR before beginning Coumadin
• C. Clarify the order with the healthcare provider as soon as possible
• D. Administer the Coumadin along with the heparin drip as ordered

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to administer the Coumadin along with the heparin drip as ordered. Heparin and warfarin are often given together initially because warfarin takes a few days to become effective. Discontinuing the heparin drip before initiating Coumadin can increase the risk of clot formation. Checking the client's INR before starting Coumadin is important but not the immediate action required. Clarifying the order with the healthcare provider is not necessary as both medications are commonly used together.

4. Which of the following is a specialized medical treatment and teaching facility that provides general and specialized medical and dental care and treatment?

• A. CONUS
• B. MEDCEN
• C. MEDCOM
• D. MEDDAC

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B, 'MEDCEN.' A MEDCEN (Medical Center) is a specialized medical treatment and teaching facility that offers general and specialized medical and dental care. Choice A, 'CONUS,' refers to the continental United States and is not related to medical facilities. Choice C, 'MEDCOM,' stands for Medical Command, which is an administrative entity responsible for overseeing medical units, not providing direct care. Choice D, 'MEDDAC,' refers to Medical Department Activity, which is a smaller medical unit compared to a MEDCEN and may not provide the same level of specialized care.

5. For which client situation would a consultation with a rapid response team (RRT) be most appropriate?

• A. 45-year-old; 2 years post kidney transplant; second hospital day for treatment of pneumonia; no urine output for 6 hours; temperature 101.4°F; heart rate of 98 beats per minute; respirations 20 breaths per minute; blood pressure 88/72 mm Hg; is restless
• B. 72-year-old; 24 hours after removal of a chest tube that was used to drain pleural fluid (effusion); temperature 97.8°F; heart rate 92 beats per minute; respirations 28 breaths per minute; blood pressure 132/86 mm Hg; anxious about going home
• C. 56-year-old fourth hospital day after coronary artery bypass procedure; sore chest; pain with walking temperature 97°F; heart rate 84 beats per minute; respirations 22 breaths per minute; blood pressure 87/72 mm Hg; bored with hospitalization
• D. 86-year-old; 48 hours postoperative repair of fractured hip (nail inserted; alert; oriented; using patient-controlled analgesia (PCA) pump; temperature 96.8°F; heart rate 60 beats per minute; respirations 16 breaths per minute; blood pressure 90/62 mm Hg; talking with daughter

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. This client situation presents with concerning clinical signs such as no urine output post kidney transplant, elevated temperature, tachycardia, hypotension, and restlessness, suggestive of acute renal failure and sepsis. These signs necessitate immediate intervention by the rapid response team (RRT) to address the potentially life-threatening conditions. Choice B is incorrect as the client is stable after chest tube removal and primarily anxious about going home. Choice C is incorrect as the client's symptoms are related to postoperative recovery and boredom, not indicating an urgent need for RRT consultation. Choice D is incorrect as the client post hip repair is stable, alert, and interacting normally, without signs of acute deterioration requiring RRT involvement.

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