Nursing Elites

1. The client is complaining of painful swallowing secondary to mouth ulcers. Which statement by the client indicates appropriate management?

• A. “I will brush my teeth with a soft-bristle toothbrush.”
• B. “I will rinse my mouth with Listerine mouthwash.”
• C. “I will swish my antifungal solution and then swallow.”
• D. “I will avoid spicy foods, tobacco, and alcohol.”

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Avoiding irritants like spicy foods, tobacco, and alcohol is crucial in managing mouth ulcers as they can further irritate the ulcers and delay healing. Choices A, B, and C could potentially worsen the condition. Brushing with a soft-bristle toothbrush may cause discomfort, rinsing with Listerine mouthwash can be too harsh on the ulcers, and swallowing antifungal solution is not recommended unless specified by a healthcare provider.

2. Which vitamin deficiency is commonly associated with prolonged antibiotic use?

• A. Vitamin A
• B. Vitamin B6
• C. Vitamin C
• D. Vitamin K

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is Vitamin K. Prolonged antibiotic use can disrupt the gut flora, which is responsible for synthesizing Vitamin K. This disruption can lead to a Vitamin K deficiency and an increased risk of bleeding. Vitamin A, B6, and C deficiencies are not typically associated with prolonged antibiotic use.

3. A patient is prescribed an oral anticoagulant. What should the nurse monitor for?

• A. Elevated blood glucose
• B. Decreased blood pressure
• C. Signs of bleeding
• D. Increased appetite

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Correct! When a patient is prescribed an oral anticoagulant, the nurse should monitor for signs of bleeding. Oral anticoagulants are medications that prevent blood clot formation but can increase the risk of bleeding. Monitoring for signs such as easy bruising, blood in urine or stool, and prolonged bleeding from minor cuts is essential. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because oral anticoagulants do not typically affect blood glucose levels, blood pressure, or appetite.

4. The nurse is caring for clients on a cardiac floor. Which client should the nurse assess first?

• A. The client with three (3) unifocal PVCs in a minute
• B. The client diagnosed with coronary artery disease who wants to ambulate
• C. The client diagnosed with mitral valve prolapse with an audible S3
• D. The client diagnosed with pericarditis who is in normal sinus rhythm

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because an audible S3 in a client with mitral valve prolapse could indicate heart failure and requires immediate assessment. Choice A is not as urgent as an audible S3 in mitral valve prolapse. Choice B, a client with coronary artery disease wanting to ambulate, does not present an immediate concern compared to a potential heart failure indicated by an audible S3. Choice D, a client with pericarditis in normal sinus rhythm, is stable and does not require immediate attention when compared to a potential heart failure situation signified by an audible S3 in mitral valve prolapse.

5. A patient with diabetes should be advised to avoid which type of carbohydrate?

• A. Simple carbohydrates
• B. Complex carbohydrates
• C. Fiber-rich carbohydrates
• D. All carbohydrates

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A patient with diabetes should be advised to avoid simple carbohydrates. Simple carbohydrates can cause rapid spikes in blood glucose levels due to their quick absorption, which can be challenging to manage for individuals with diabetes. Complex carbohydrates and fiber-rich carbohydrates are generally better choices for individuals with diabetes as they are absorbed more slowly, leading to more stable blood glucose levels. Avoiding all carbohydrates is not necessary or recommended, as carbohydrates are an essential source of energy and nutrients in a balanced diet.

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