Nursing Elites

1. During the admission interview, which question should the nurse ask the male client diagnosed with aorto-iliac disease?

• A. “Do you have trouble sitting for long periods of time?”
• B. “How often do you have a bowel movement and urinate?”
• C. “When you lie down do you feel throbbing in your abdomen?”
• D. “Have you experienced any problems having sexual intercourse?”

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: “Have you experienced any problems having sexual intercourse?” Aorto-iliac disease can lead to impaired blood flow to the pelvis and lower extremities, potentially causing sexual dysfunction. The other choices (A, B, and C) are less relevant to the specific effects of aorto-iliac disease on the client's health. While choice A may relate to discomfort, it does not directly address the impact of the disease on sexual function. Choices B and C are more general and do not specifically target the potential issues related to aorto-iliac disease.

2. Determining nursing care priorities is a part of which of the following steps for determining and fulfilling the nursing care needs of the patient?

• A. Evaluation
• B. Planning
• C. Implementation
• D. Assessment

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Planning in nursing involves setting priorities based on the identified patient needs, establishing goals, and developing a plan of care. Evaluation involves assessing the effectiveness of the care provided, implementation is the phase where the care plan is carried out, and assessment is the initial step of collecting data to identify the patient's needs. Therefore, in the context of determining nursing care priorities, the correct step is Planning (choice B).

3. What type of food should a patient taking anticoagulants be cautious about consuming?

• A. High-protein foods
• B. High-fiber foods
• C. High-vitamin K foods
• D. High-calcium foods

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Patients taking anticoagulants should be cautious about consuming high-vitamin K foods. Vitamin K can interfere with the effectiveness of anticoagulants by affecting blood clotting. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they do not directly interact with the action of anticoagulants.

4. Which of the following is a primary intervention for managing hyperphosphatemia?

• A. Increasing calcium intake
• B. Increasing phosphorus intake
• C. Decreasing calcium intake
• D. Administering phosphate binders

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, administering phosphate binders. Phosphate binders are a primary intervention for managing hyperphosphatemia as they help by binding phosphorus in the gut, preventing its absorption. Increasing calcium intake (choice A) or phosphorus intake (choice B) would exacerbate hyperphosphatemia. Decreasing calcium intake (choice C) is not a primary intervention for managing high phosphorus levels.

5. The nurse is caring for a client diagnosed with rule-out nephritic syndrome. Which intervention should be included in the plan of care?

• A. Monitor the urine for bright-red bleeding
• B. Evaluate the calorie count of the 500-mg protein diet
• C. Assess the client’s sacrum for dependent edema
• D. Monitor for a high serum albumin level

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct intervention to include in the plan of care for a client with rule-out nephritic syndrome is to assess the client’s sacrum for dependent edema. Dependent edema is common in nephritic syndrome due to protein loss, and monitoring for this helps manage the condition. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Monitoring the urine for bright-red bleeding may be more relevant for a client with a different condition, such as glomerulonephritis. Evaluating the calorie count of a 500-mg protein diet is not directly related to managing nephritic syndrome. Monitoring for a high serum albumin level does not directly address the symptom of dependent edema associated with nephritic syndrome.

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