the client is complaining of painful swallowing secondary to mouth ulcers which statement by the client indicates appropriate management
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI RN Custom Exams Set 5

1. The client is complaining of painful swallowing secondary to mouth ulcers. Which statement by the client indicates appropriate management?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Avoiding irritants like spicy foods, tobacco, and alcohol is crucial in managing mouth ulcers as they can further irritate and worsen the condition. Choice A is incorrect as using a soft-bristle toothbrush may still cause discomfort. Choice B is incorrect as alcohol-containing mouthwashes can be irritating. Choice C is incorrect as swallowing antifungal solution meant for topical use is not appropriate and can be harmful.

2. When measuring the leg circumference of a client with bipedal edema, what position is best to ensure accurate measurements?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When measuring the leg circumference of a client with bipedal edema, the best position to ensure accurate and consistent measurements is the dorsal recumbent position. This position allows the legs to be positioned comfortably, and the individual is lying on their back with legs extended, facilitating accurate measurement of the circumference without the influence of gravity. Sitting, standing, and supine positions may not provide optimal conditions for accurate leg circumference measurements, particularly in clients with bipedal edema where positioning and consistency are crucial. Sitting and standing positions may not allow for consistent leg positioning and could introduce errors due to the effects of gravity on the fluid distribution. The supine position, while similar to dorsal recumbent, may not be as comfortable for the client and could still be influenced by gravity when measuring leg circumference.

3. The nurse on the postsurgical unit received a client that was transferred from the post-anesthesia care unit (PACU) and is planning care for this client. The nurse understands that staff should begin planning for this client’s discharge at which point during the hospitalization?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Discharge planning should begin as soon as the patient is admitted to the surgical unit to ensure a smooth transition. Option A is the correct choice because it marks the initial point in the hospitalization process where discharge planning should start. Options B, C, and D are not the ideal points to begin discharge planning. Option B only signifies a transfer within the hospital, while Option C relates to the patient's independence in activities of daily living, which is not directly linked to discharge planning. Option D, having the patient assessed by the healthcare provider for the first time after surgery, is unrelated to the timing of discharge planning.

4. Which type of anemia is associated with chronic kidney disease?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, Erythropoietin deficiency anemia. Chronic kidney disease often leads to anemia due to decreased production of erythropoietin. This hormone, produced by the kidneys, stimulates the bone marrow to produce red blood cells. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Iron-deficiency anemia is characterized by low iron levels, vitamin B12 deficiency anemia by inadequate vitamin B12, and aplastic anemia by bone marrow failure.

5. Which of the following is the primary enlisted personnel performing nursing care duties at the various levels of health care?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 68WM6. The 68WM6 (Practical Nurse) is the primary enlisted personnel performing nursing care duties. Choice A (68A30) does not correspond to a primary enlisted personnel role in nursing. Choice C (Physician assistant) is not an enlisted personnel role but rather a separate healthcare profession. Choice D (6.80E+21) is a numerical value and does not relate to enlisted personnel performing nursing care duties.

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