the nurse is caring for a client on strict bed rest which intervention is the priority when caring for this client
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI RN Custom Exams Set 3

1. The nurse is caring for a client on strict bed rest. Which intervention is the priority when caring for this client?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Performing active range of motion exercises is the priority intervention for a client on strict bed rest. These exercises help prevent complications such as thromboembolism and muscle atrophy by promoting circulation and maintaining muscle strength. Encouraging liquids, elevating the head of the bed, and providing a high-fiber diet are important interventions but not the priority when compared to preventing serious complications associated with immobility.

2. The nurse is teaching the client diagnosed with colon cancer who is scheduled for a colostomy the next day. Which behavior indicates the best method of applying adult teaching principles?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Choice A is the correct answer because repeating information and addressing the client’s questions as they arise is an effective method for reinforcing learning in adults. This approach allows for immediate clarification and reinforcement of important points. Choice B is incorrect because teaching all the information in one session may be overwhelming for the client and hinder retention. Choice C is incorrect as using a video with medical terms may not necessarily address the client's specific questions or concerns. Choice D is also incorrect because waiting for the client to ask questions may lead to missed opportunities for providing crucial information and addressing uncertainties.

3. Which of the following is a primary intervention for managing hyperphosphatemia?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, administering phosphate binders. Phosphate binders are a primary intervention for managing hyperphosphatemia as they help by binding phosphorus in the gut, preventing its absorption. Increasing calcium intake (choice A) or phosphorus intake (choice B) would exacerbate hyperphosphatemia. Decreasing calcium intake (choice C) is not a primary intervention for managing high phosphorus levels.

4. When a field medical element is not operational, it engages in training to achieve readiness for mobilization that involves all aspects of operation. Individuals must be proficient in their MOS/ASI and which of the following?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In this scenario, when a field medical element is not operational, training is essential to prepare for mobilization. Proficiency in MOS/ASI (Military Occupational Specialty/Area of Specialization) is crucial, along with proficiency in common soldier tasks. Common soldier tasks encompass fundamental skills and knowledge that are essential for operational readiness and mobilization. Options A, B, and D are not as directly related to individual readiness for mobilization in this context.

5. Which electrolyte imbalance is a potential side effect of diuretics?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, Hypokalemia. Diuretics commonly cause hypokalemia due to increased urinary excretion of potassium. Hyperkalemia (Choice A) is the opposite, characterized by high potassium levels and is not typically associated with diuretics. Hypercalcemia (Choice B) is an elevated calcium level, which is not a common side effect of diuretics. Hypomagnesemia (Choice C) is low magnesium levels, which can be a side effect of diuretics, but the most common electrolyte imbalance associated with diuretics is hypokalemia.

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