ATI RN
ATI RN Custom Exams Set 3
1. The nurse is caring for a client on strict bed rest. Which intervention is the priority when caring for this client?
- A. Encourage the client to drink liquids
- B. Perform active range of motion exercises
- C. Elevate the head of the bed to 45 degrees
- D. Provide a high-fiber diet to the client
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Performing active range of motion exercises is the priority intervention for a client on strict bed rest. These exercises help prevent complications such as thromboembolism and muscle atrophy by promoting circulation and maintaining muscle strength. Encouraging liquids, elevating the head of the bed, and providing a high-fiber diet are important interventions but not the priority when compared to preventing serious complications associated with immobility.
2. In managing cystic fibrosis, which nutrition therapy is crucial for patients with pancreatic insufficiency?
- A. A low-fat diet to prevent steatorrhea
- B. A low-sodium diet to normalize fluid status
- C. A high-fiber diet to normalize bowel function
- D. Pancreatic enzyme replacement therapy to help digestion
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In cystic fibrosis patients with pancreatic insufficiency, pancreatic enzyme replacement therapy is vital for aiding digestion. This therapy helps compensate for the decreased production of digestive enzymes by the pancreas, enabling the proper breakdown and absorption of nutrients. Options A, B, and C are not the primary focus of nutrition therapy for cystic fibrosis patients with pancreatic insufficiency.
3. Warfarin (Coumadin) is an anticoagulant and interferes with the action of:
- A. Platelets
- B. Vitamin K
- C. Calcium
- D. Vitamin B12
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Vitamin K. Warfarin inhibits the action of vitamin K, which is essential for blood clotting. By interfering with the production of certain clotting factors, warfarin helps prevent blood clots. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because warfarin primarily affects the vitamin K-dependent clotting factors and not platelets, calcium, or vitamin B12.
4. In assessing the client's chest, which position best shows chest expansion as well as its movements?
- A. Sitting
- B. Prone
- C. Sidelying
- D. Supine
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The position that best shows chest expansion as well as its movements is when the client is sitting. When the client is seated, their chest is in an optimal position for observing the full range of chest expansion during breathing. This position allows for easy visualization of chest movements and expansion as the client breathes in and out, providing a comprehensive assessment of respiratory function. Choice B (Prone) and Choice D (Supine) involve positions where the chest's movements and expansion are less visible and may not provide an accurate representation of respiratory function. Choice C (Sidelying) can also limit the visibility of chest expansion compared to the sitting position.
5. What is the primary goal of care for a client diagnosed with sickle cell anemia?
- A. The client will call the healthcare provider if feeling ill.
- B. The client will be compliant with the medical regimen.
- C. The client will live as normal a life as possible.
- D. The client will verbalize understanding of treatments.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'The client will live as normal a life as possible.' For a client with sickle cell anemia, the primary goal of care is to promote a good quality of life by managing symptoms, preventing crises, and enhancing overall well-being. Option A is incorrect as it focuses on a specific action rather than the overall goal of care. Option B is important but not the primary goal; compliance is a means to achieve better health outcomes. Option D is also important but does not address the holistic approach of helping the client maintain a normal lifestyle despite their condition.
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