Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is caring for a client on strict bed rest. Which intervention is the priority when caring for this client?

• A. Encourage the client to drink liquids
• B. Perform active range of motion exercises
• C. Elevate the head of the bed to 45 degrees
• D. Provide a high-fiber diet to the client

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Performing active range of motion exercises is the priority intervention for a client on strict bed rest. These exercises help prevent complications such as thromboembolism and muscle atrophy by promoting circulation and maintaining muscle strength. Encouraging liquids, elevating the head of the bed, and providing a high-fiber diet are important interventions but not the priority when compared to preventing serious complications associated with immobility.

2. The nurse is teaching the client diagnosed with colon cancer who is scheduled for a colostomy the next day. Which behavior indicates the best method of applying adult teaching principles?

• A. The nurse repeats the information as indicated by the client’s questions
• B. The nurse teaches all the information needed by the client in one session
• C. The nurse uses a video to explain with medical terms to the client
• D. The nurse waits until the client asks questions about the surgery

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Choice A is the best method of applying adult teaching principles because repeating information and addressing the client’s questions as they arise is effective for reinforcing learning in adults. This approach allows for clarification of doubts and ensures that the client understands the information provided. Choice B is incorrect as teaching all the information in one session may overwhelm the client and hinder retention. Choice C is incorrect as using medical terms without ensuring the client's understanding may lead to confusion. Choice D is incorrect because waiting for the client to ask questions may result in missed opportunities to address important information proactively.

3. The nurse is caring for a client diagnosed with rule-out nephritic syndrome. Which intervention should be included in the plan of care?

• A. Monitor the urine for bright-red bleeding
• B. Evaluate the calorie count of the 500-mg protein diet
• C. Assess the client’s sacrum for dependent edema
• D. Monitor for a high serum albumin level

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Assessing the client’s sacrum for dependent edema is crucial in the care plan for nephritic syndrome as it is common due to protein loss. Dependent edema occurs as a result of decreased oncotic pressure from protein loss in the urine. Monitoring urine for bright-red bleeding (choice A) is more relevant to conditions like glomerulonephritis. Evaluating calorie count or protein intake (choice B) is important for other conditions but not specifically for nephritic syndrome. Monitoring for a high serum albumin level (choice D) is not typically part of the immediate care plan for nephritic syndrome.

4. For which client situation would a consultation with a rapid response team (RRT) be most appropriate?

• A. 45-year-old; 2 years post kidney transplant; second hospital day for treatment of pneumonia; no urine output for 6 hours; temperature 101.4°F; heart rate of 98 beats per minute; respirations 20 breaths per minute; blood pressure 88/72 mm Hg; is restless
• B. 72-year-old; 24 hours after removal of a chest tube that was used to drain pleural fluid (effusion); temperature 97.8°F; heart rate 92 beats per minute; respirations 28 breaths per minute; blood pressure 132/86 mm Hg; anxious about going home
• C. 56-year-old fourth hospital day after coronary artery bypass procedure; sore chest; pain with walking temperature 97°F; heart rate 84 beats per minute; respirations 22 breaths per minute; blood pressure 87/72 mm Hg; bored with hospitalization
• D. 86-year-old; 48 hours postoperative repair of fractured hip (nail inserted; alert; oriented; using patient-controlled analgesia (PCA) pump; temperature 96.8°F; heart rate 60 beats per minute; respirations 16 breaths per minute; blood pressure 90/62 mm Hg; talking with daughter

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. This client situation presents with concerning clinical signs such as no urine output post kidney transplant, elevated temperature, tachycardia, hypotension, and restlessness, suggestive of acute renal failure and sepsis. These signs necessitate immediate intervention by the rapid response team (RRT) to address the potentially life-threatening conditions. Choice B is incorrect as the client is stable after chest tube removal and primarily anxious about going home. Choice C is incorrect as the client's symptoms are related to postoperative recovery and boredom, not indicating an urgent need for RRT consultation. Choice D is incorrect as the client post hip repair is stable, alert, and interacting normally, without signs of acute deterioration requiring RRT involvement.

5. Whenever possible, patients evacuated from the theater of operations who are expected to return within 60 days are admitted to which of the following?

• A. Civilian hospitals participating in the National Disaster Medical System
• B. DOD tri-service hospitals
• C. Department of Veterans Affairs hospitals
• D. Field hospitals

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Patients evacuated from the theater of operations who are expected to return within 60 days are admitted to DOD tri-service hospitals. These hospitals are equipped to provide specialized care tailored to military personnel. Choice A, civilian hospitals participating in the National Disaster Medical System, may not always have the necessary expertise and resources to cater specifically to military-related injuries. Choice C, Department of Veterans Affairs hospitals, primarily serve veterans and may not always accommodate short-term care for active-duty personnel. Choice D, field hospitals, are usually set up in temporary or emergency situations and are not designed for long-term care, making them less suitable for patients expected to return within 60 days.

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