ATI RN
ATI RN Custom Exams Set 2
1. The client diagnosed with acute vein thrombosis is receiving a continuous heparin drip, an intravenous anticoagulant. The health care provider orders warfarin (Coumadin), an oral anticoagulant. Which action should the nurse take?
- A. Discontinue the heparin drip before initiating the Coumadin
- B. Check the client’s INR before beginning Coumadin
- C. Clarify the order with the healthcare provider as soon as possible
- D. Administer the Coumadin along with the heparin drip as ordered
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is to administer the Coumadin along with the heparin drip as ordered. Heparin and warfarin are often given together initially because warfarin takes a few days to become effective. Discontinuing the heparin drip before initiating Coumadin can increase the risk of clot formation. Checking the client's INR before starting Coumadin is important but not the immediate action required. Clarifying the order with the healthcare provider is not necessary as both medications are commonly used together.
2. The nurse enters a client’s room and the client is demanding release from the hospital. The nurse reviews the client’s record and noted that the client was admitted 2 days ago for treatment of an anxiety disorder, and the admission was voluntary. Which intervention should the nurse initiate first?
- A. Telephone the client’s family and have them persuade the client to stay
- B. Have the client read and sign all the appropriate self-discharge papers
- C. Explain to the client that he cannot leave because he asked for treatment
- D. Notify the client’s healthcare provider of the client’s stated intent to leave the hospital
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct intervention for the nurse to initiate first is to notify the client’s healthcare provider of the client’s stated intent to leave the hospital. This action is crucial as it ensures that the client’s care and safety are appropriately managed. Option A is not the best choice as involving the family to persuade the client may not address the client's underlying concerns. Option B is incorrect because having the client sign self-discharge papers without further assessment is not appropriate. Option C is also incorrect as the client's request for treatment does not prevent them from leaving if they are deemed competent to make that decision.
3. A client with a diagnosis of catatonic schizophrenia is expected to exhibit which clinical finding?
- A. Crying
- B. Self-mutilation
- C. Immobile posturing
- D. Repetitious activities
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In catatonic schizophrenia, immobile posturing is a common clinical finding where the patient may maintain a rigid or bizarre posture for prolonged periods. Crying (Choice A) is not typically associated with catatonic schizophrenia. Self-mutilation (Choice B) is more commonly seen in conditions like borderline personality disorder. Repetitious activities (Choice D) are not a hallmark symptom of catatonic schizophrenia.
4. The nurse is teaching the client diagnosed with colon cancer who is scheduled for a colostomy the next day. Which behavior indicates the best method of applying adult teaching principles?
- A. The nurse repeats the information as indicated by the client’s questions
- B. The nurse teaches all the information needed by the client in one session
- C. The nurse uses a video to explain with medical terms to the client
- D. The nurse waits until the client asks questions about the surgery
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Choice A is the best method of applying adult teaching principles because repeating information and addressing the client’s questions as they arise is effective for reinforcing learning in adults. This approach allows for clarification of doubts and ensures that the client understands the information provided. Choice B is incorrect as teaching all the information in one session may overwhelm the client and hinder retention. Choice C is incorrect as using medical terms without ensuring the client's understanding may lead to confusion. Choice D is incorrect because waiting for the client to ask questions may result in missed opportunities to address important information proactively.
5. Which of the following is NOT one of the three basic areas of concern into which practical nurse management responsibilities can be categorized?
- A. Managing patients' legal affairs
- B. Managing the hypothalamus: The hypothalamus is a small area in the brain located just below the thalamus. It plays a crucial role in controlling various bodily functions, including temperature regulation, hunger, and thirst, sleep-wake cycles, and hormone regulation. The hypothalamus is also involved in the control of the autonomic nervous system and the release of hormones from the pituitary gland.
- C. Managing work center operations
- D. Managing personnel
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Managing patients' legal affairs is not a basic area of concern in practical nurse management responsibilities. The primary areas typically include managing work center operations, managing personnel, and overseeing patient care. Choice B, managing the hypothalamus, is irrelevant to nurse management responsibilities and is not a standard area of concern in this context. Choice C, managing work center operations, and Choice D, managing personnel, align more closely with the core responsibilities and concerns of practical nurse management roles.
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