the client diagnosed with acute vein thrombosis is receiving a continuous heparin drip an intravenous anticoagulant the health care provider orders w
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI RN Custom Exams Set 2

1. The client diagnosed with acute vein thrombosis is receiving a continuous heparin drip, an intravenous anticoagulant. The health care provider orders warfarin (Coumadin), an oral anticoagulant. Which action should the nurse take?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to administer the Coumadin along with the heparin drip as ordered. Heparin and warfarin are often given together initially because warfarin takes a few days to become effective. Discontinuing the heparin drip before initiating Coumadin can increase the risk of clot formation. Checking the client's INR before starting Coumadin is important but not the immediate action required. Clarifying the order with the healthcare provider is not necessary as both medications are commonly used together.

2. In a routine sputum analysis, which of the following indicates proper nursing action before sputum collection?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Before sputum collection, it is crucial to use a clean container to prevent specimen contamination. This step is essential to ensure accurate test results and to avoid introducing external particles or bacteria into the sample. Choice B is incorrect because discarding the container if the outside becomes soiled is not a standard practice before collection. Choice C is incorrect as rinsing the client's mouth with Listerine after collection can introduce unnecessary substances into the specimen. Choice D is incorrect as the amount of sputum needed should be determined by the healthcare provider, not the client.

3. What is the COMMZ level hospital whose principal mission is to treat and rehabilitate those patients who can return to duty within the stated theater evacuation policy?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: GH (General Hospital). General Hospitals have the principal mission of treating and rehabilitating patients who can return to duty within the theater evacuation policy. FSB (Forward Surgical Hospital), CSH (Combat Support Hospital), and FH (Field Hospital) do not focus on treating and rehabilitating patients for duty within the theater evacuation policy, making them incorrect choices.

4. When palpating the client's neck for lymphadenopathy, where should the nurse position himself?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When palpating the client's neck for lymphadenopathy, the nurse should position himself in front of a sitting client. This positioning allows for easier access to the neck area and better visualization of any swelling or abnormalities in the lymph nodes. Being in front of the client ensures proper alignment and comfort for both the nurse and the client during the assessment. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because positioning at the client's back or sides would make it challenging to adequately palpate the neck area and assess for lymphadenopathy.

5. Which drugs contribute to peptic ulcers?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) are known to contribute to the development of peptic ulcers by affecting the protective lining of the stomach and increasing stomach acid production. This can lead to irritation and ulcer formation. Antacids are actually used to relieve symptoms of peptic ulcers by neutralizing stomach acid. Certain antibiotics may be prescribed to treat H. pylori infection, a common cause of peptic ulcers. Cholesterol-lowering medications are not typically associated with causing peptic ulcers.

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