Nursing Elites

1. A nurse administers albuterol to a child with asthma. For what common side effect should the nurse monitor the child?

• A. Flushing
• B. Dyspnea
• C. Tachycardia
• D. Hypotension

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, Tachycardia. Albuterol, a bronchodilator used to treat asthma, commonly causes tachycardia as a side effect. This occurs due to the medication's stimulatory effect on beta-2 adrenergic receptors. Flushing (Choice A) is not a common side effect of albuterol. Dyspnea (Choice B) refers to difficulty breathing, which is a symptom albuterol aims to alleviate. Hypotension (Choice D) is not typically associated with albuterol use; instead, albuterol can lead to an increase in blood pressure.

2. Interacting with the patient and their family to obtain subjective information is part of which of the following steps for determining and fulfilling the nursing care needs of the patient?

• A. Evaluation
• B. Planning
• C. Implementation
• D. Assessment

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, Assessment. Assessment in nursing involves obtaining subjective information from the patient and their family to gather data about the patient's health status. This step is crucial as it helps identify the patient's needs, strengths, and areas requiring intervention. Choice A, Evaluation, is incorrect as evaluation comes after the implementation of the care plan to determine its effectiveness. Choice B, Planning, is also incorrect as it involves developing a plan of care based on the assessment data. Choice C, Implementation, is the phase where the nursing interventions are carried out based on the established care plan.

3. The nurse is caring for a client diagnosed with rule-out nephritic syndrome. Which intervention should be included in the plan of care?

• A. Monitor the urine for bright-red bleeding
• B. Evaluate the calorie count of the 500-mg protein diet
• C. Assess the client’s sacrum for dependent edema
• D. Monitor for a high serum albumin level

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct intervention to include in the plan of care for a client with rule-out nephritic syndrome is to assess the client’s sacrum for dependent edema. Dependent edema is common in nephritic syndrome due to protein loss, and monitoring for this helps manage the condition. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Monitoring the urine for bright-red bleeding may be more relevant for a client with a different condition, such as glomerulonephritis. Evaluating the calorie count of a 500-mg protein diet is not directly related to managing nephritic syndrome. Monitoring for a high serum albumin level does not directly address the symptom of dependent edema associated with nephritic syndrome.

4. A client takes an antidepressant and oral contraceptives. Which herbal supplement should the nurse educate the client about as a potential drug-herb interaction?

• A. Iron supplement
• B. Garlic
• C. Green tea
• D. St. John’s Wort

Correct answer: D

Rationale: St. John’s Wort is the correct answer because it can interact with antidepressants and oral contraceptives, potentially affecting their efficacy. Iron supplement, garlic, and green tea do not typically interact with antidepressants or oral contraceptives to the same extent as St. John’s Wort.

5. A patient with chronic renal failure should avoid which of the following?

• A. Potassium
• B. Calcium
• C. Iron
• D. Zinc

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Patients with chronic renal failure should avoid potassium due to impaired kidney function. The kidneys play a crucial role in regulating potassium levels in the body. In renal failure, the kidneys may not be able to excrete excess potassium effectively, leading to hyperkalemia. Calcium, iron, and zinc are not typically restricted in chronic renal failure unless there are specific individual circumstances, making them incorrect choices.

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