Nursing Elites

1. A nurse administers albuterol to a child with asthma. For what common side effect should the nurse monitor the child?

• A. Flushing
• B. Dyspnea
• C. Tachycardia
• D. Hypotension

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, Tachycardia. Albuterol, a bronchodilator used to treat asthma, commonly causes tachycardia as a side effect. This occurs due to the medication's stimulatory effect on beta-2 adrenergic receptors. Flushing (Choice A) is not a common side effect of albuterol. Dyspnea (Choice B) refers to difficulty breathing, which is a symptom albuterol aims to alleviate. Hypotension (Choice D) is not typically associated with albuterol use; instead, albuterol can lead to an increase in blood pressure.

2. The client is recovering from a percutaneous renal biopsy. Which data indicate that the client is complying with client teaching?

• A. The client lies flat in the supine position for 12 hours
• B. The client continues oral fluids restriction while on bed rest
• C. The client’s family changed the dressing on return to the room
• D. The family activates the patient-controlled analgesia pump

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Lying flat in the supine position for 12 hours after a renal biopsy helps prevent bleeding, which is crucial for the client's recovery. This position aids in applying pressure to the biopsy site, reducing the risk of bleeding and ensuring optimal healing. Choices B, C, and D do not directly relate to compliance with client teaching after a renal biopsy. Continuing oral fluids restriction, changing the dressing, or activating a patient-controlled analgesia pump are not specific instructions aimed at promoting recovery and preventing complications post renal biopsy.

3. Which of the following is a primary intervention for managing hyperphosphatemia?

• A. Increasing calcium intake
• B. Increasing phosphorus intake
• C. Decreasing calcium intake
• D. Administering phosphate binders

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, administering phosphate binders. Phosphate binders are a primary intervention for managing hyperphosphatemia as they help by binding phosphorus in the gut, preventing its absorption. Increasing calcium intake (choice A) or phosphorus intake (choice B) would exacerbate hyperphosphatemia. Decreasing calcium intake (choice C) is not a primary intervention for managing high phosphorus levels.

4. What is the COMMZ level hospital whose principal mission is to treat and rehabilitate those patients who can return to duty within the stated theater evacuation policy?

• A. FSB
• B. CSH
• C. GH
• D. FH

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, GH (General Hospital), as it is the COMMZ level hospital that focuses on treating and rehabilitating patients who can return to duty within the theater evacuation policy. FSB (Forward Surgical Hospital) primarily provides surgical care close to the front lines. CSH (Combat Support Hospital) offers more comprehensive surgical and medical care than FSB but does not focus on rehabilitation like GH. FH (Field Hospital) provides initial medical care and stabilization before patients are evacuated to higher-level facilities.

5. When a field medical element is not operational, it engages in training to achieve readiness for mobilization that involves all aspects of operation. Individuals must be proficient in their MOS/ASI and which of the following?

• A. Command and control procedures
• B. Computers and data processing
• C. Common soldier tasks
• D. Communications and automation

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In the context of field medical training for mobilization, proficiency in common soldier tasks is essential. This includes skills like first aid, navigation, marksmanship, and other fundamental military tasks. While command and control procedures, communications, and automation are important, common soldier tasks are specifically mentioned in the scenario as critical for achieving readiness and mobilization.

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