Nursing Elites

1. What is the best position for any procedure that involves vaginal and cervical examination?

• A. Dorsal recumbent
• B. Side lying
• C. Supine
• D. Lithotomy

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The lithotomy position is the most suitable position for procedures involving vaginal and cervical examination because it provides the best access to the vaginal and cervical regions. In this position, the patient lies on their back with their legs flexed and feet placed in stirrups, allowing for optimal visualization and access to the area. This position facilitates proper examination, diagnosis, and treatment when working in the gynecological field. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not provide the necessary exposure and access required for a thorough vaginal and cervical examination. Dorsal recumbent, side lying, and supine positions may limit visibility and hinder the examination process in such cases.

2. Three major causes of atherosclerosis are:

• A. Hyperthyroidism, underweight, and poor appetite
• B. High blood cholesterol, high blood pressure, and cigarette smoking
• C. Constipation, peptic ulcer disease, and pancreatitis
• D. Kidney failure, edema, and sodium retention

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Atherosclerosis is primarily caused by high blood cholesterol, high blood pressure, and cigarette smoking. These factors contribute to the buildup of plaque in the arteries. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Hyperthyroidism, underweight, and poor appetite do not directly cause atherosclerosis. Similarly, constipation, peptic ulcer disease, pancreatitis, kidney failure, edema, and sodium retention are not among the primary causes of atherosclerosis.

3. Which corps-level hospital is a 296-bed facility that is staffed and equipped to provide care for all categories of patients?

• A. FSB
• B. CSH
• C. GH
• D. FH

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is GH (General Hospital), a 296-bed facility that offers care for all categories of patients. FSB, CSH, and FH do not typically refer to hospitals at the corps level and are not specifically known for providing comprehensive care.

4. Why may patients with hiatal hernia develop anemia?

• A. Iron absorption is reduced
• B. Gastritis may cause bleeding
• C. Iron stores turn over more quickly
• D. Patients have an aversion to foods that are good sources of iron

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Gastritis may cause bleeding. In patients with hiatal hernia, gastritis can occur due to the reflux of stomach acid into the esophagus. This gastritis can lead to gastrointestinal bleeding, resulting in anemia. Choice A is incorrect because iron absorption is not necessarily reduced in hiatal hernia. Choice C is incorrect as iron stores turnover rate is not directly related to the development of anemia in this context. Choice D is incorrect as an aversion to iron-rich foods is not a common reason for anemia in patients with hiatal hernia.

5. Which of the following is NOT a terminal learning objective for Phase I of the M6 Practical Nurse Course?

• A. Identify principles of basic-level anatomy, physiology, microbiology, and nutrition
• B. Perform basic-level pharmacological calculations
• C. Integrate the knowledge of drug therapy into nursing practice
• D. Identify basic principles of field nursing

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Integrating drug therapy knowledge is not a terminal learning objective for Phase I of the M6 Practical Nurse Course. Choices A, B, and D are all relevant terminal learning objectives for Phase I, focusing on understanding basic-level anatomy, physiology, microbiology, nutrition, performing pharmacological calculations, and identifying basic principles of field nursing, respectively.

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