the best position for any procedure that involves vaginal and cervical examination is
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI RN Custom Exams Set 5

1. What is the best position for any procedure that involves vaginal and cervical examination?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The lithotomy position is the most suitable position for procedures involving vaginal and cervical examination because it provides the best access to the vaginal and cervical regions. In this position, the patient lies on their back with their legs flexed and feet placed in stirrups, allowing for optimal visualization and access to the area. This position facilitates proper examination, diagnosis, and treatment when working in the gynecological field. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not provide the necessary exposure and access required for a thorough vaginal and cervical examination. Dorsal recumbent, side lying, and supine positions may limit visibility and hinder the examination process in such cases.

2. In assessing the client's chest, which position best shows chest expansion as well as its movements?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Sitting. When the client is seated, their chest is in an optimal position for observing the full range of chest expansion during breathing. This position allows for easy visualization of chest movements and expansion as the client breathes in and out, providing a comprehensive assessment of respiratory function. Choice B, Prone, is incorrect as lying face down would not provide a clear view of chest expansion. Choice C, Sidelying, is also incorrect as this position may limit the visibility of chest movements. Choice D, Supine, is not the best position for assessing chest expansion as it may not offer a clear observation of chest movements during breathing.

3. The nurse is preparing the plan of care for a client with fluid volume deficit. Which interventions should the nurse include in the plan of care?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct interventions for a client with fluid volume deficit include monitoring vital signs every two hours until stable, weighing the client in the same clothing at the same time daily, and assessing skin turgor. Monitoring vital signs helps in early detection of changes, daily weighing can indicate fluid retention or loss, and skin turgor assessment is a reliable indicator of hydration status. Administering mouth care every eight hours is not directly related to managing fluid volume deficit and should not be included in the plan of care for this specific condition.

4. A nurse is reviewing the laboratory results for a client with a history of atherosclerosis and notes elevated cholesterol levels. Which statement by the client indicates the nurse should plan follow-up instruction on a low-cholesterol diet?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Eating three eggs daily increases cholesterol intake, which could exacerbate atherosclerosis. Choice A is incorrect because taking an omega-3 supplement can actually help reduce cholesterol levels. Choice B is incorrect as canola oil is a healthier choice compared to saturated fats. Choice D is incorrect since flavoring meat with lemon juice does not significantly impact cholesterol levels.

5. The nurse has been assigned to train the unlicensed nursing assistant about prioritizing care. Which client should the nurse instruct the unlicensed nursing assistant to see first?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because removing sequential compression devices could increase the risk of thromboembolism, making it the priority. Choice B involves assisting with ambulation, which can be done after addressing the urgent need of the client in choice A. Choice C and D involve non-urgent tasks compared to the potential risks associated with not removing sequential compression devices promptly.

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