Nursing Elites

1. What is the best position for any procedure that involves vaginal and cervical examination?

• A. Dorsal recumbent
• B. Side lying
• C. Supine
• D. Lithotomy

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The lithotomy position is the most suitable position for procedures involving vaginal and cervical examination because it provides the best access to the vaginal and cervical regions. In this position, the patient lies on their back with their legs flexed and feet placed in stirrups, allowing for optimal visualization and access to the area. This position facilitates proper examination, diagnosis, and treatment when working in the gynecological field. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not provide the necessary exposure and access required for a thorough vaginal and cervical examination. Dorsal recumbent, side lying, and supine positions may limit visibility and hinder the examination process in such cases.

2. The unlicensed nursing assistant is applying elastic compression stockings to the client. Which action by the assistant warrants immediate intervention by the nurse?

• A. The assistant is putting the stockings on while the client is in the chair
• B. The assistant inserted two (2) fingers under the proximal end of the stocking
• C. The assistant elevated the feet while lying down to put on the stockings
• D. The assistant made sure the toes were warm after putting the stockings on

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Compression stockings should be applied while the client is lying down to prevent pooling of blood in the legs, which can occur when the client is sitting or standing. Choice B is incorrect as inserting two fingers under the proximal end of the stocking helps ensure proper fit. Choice C is incorrect as elevating the feet while lying down is a correct technique for applying compression stockings. Choice D is incorrect as ensuring the toes are warm after putting the stockings on is a good practice for client comfort.

3. The two members of the health care team who work closely to monitor drug-nutrient interactions are:

• A. Physician and nurse
• B. Physician and pharmacist
• C. Nurse and clinical dietitian
• D. Clinical dietitian and pharmacist

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Clinical dietitians and pharmacists work together to manage drug-nutrient interactions. They have the expertise to understand how medications and nutrients can interact in the body, potentially affecting the effectiveness of treatment. Physicians and nurses may be involved in patient care, but when it comes to monitoring drug-nutrient interactions, the specialized knowledge of clinical dietitians and pharmacists is crucial. Nurses and physicians typically focus more on administering medications and managing overall patient care, rather than the specific interactions between drugs and nutrients.

4. The nurse is caring for a client in a sickle cell crisis. Which is the pain regimen of choice to relieve the pain?

• A. Frequent aspirin (acetylsalicylic acid) and a non-narcotic analgesic
• B. Motrin (ibuprofen), an NSAID, PRN
• C. Demerol (meperidine), a narcotic analgesic, every four (4) hours
• D. Morphine, a narcotic analgesic, every two (2) to three (3) hours PRN

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Morphine is the preferred analgesic in sickle cell crisis due to its potency and effectiveness in managing severe pain.

5. People who use monoamine oxidase inhibitors for the treatment of depression need to avoid foods high in:

• A. Folate
• B. Tyramine
• C. Potassium
• D. Vitamin K

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Tyramine. When individuals taking monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIs) consume foods high in tyramine, it can lead to a potentially dangerous increase in blood pressure known as a hypertensive crisis. Foods high in tyramine include aged cheeses, cured meats, and certain fermented foods. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Folate, potassium, and vitamin K are not typically contraindicated with the use of MAOIs.

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