Nursing Elites

1. What is the best position for any procedure that involves vaginal and cervical examination?

• A. Dorsal recumbent
• B. Side lying
• C. Supine
• D. Lithotomy

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The lithotomy position is the most suitable position for procedures involving vaginal and cervical examination because it provides the best access to the vaginal and cervical regions. In this position, the patient lies on their back with their legs flexed and feet placed in stirrups, allowing for optimal visualization and access to the area. This position facilitates proper examination, diagnosis, and treatment when working in the gynecological field. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not provide the necessary exposure and access required for a thorough vaginal and cervical examination. Dorsal recumbent, side lying, and supine positions may limit visibility and hinder the examination process in such cases.

2. The system used at the division level and forward comprises six basic modules. Which module is composed of practical nurses, medical specialists, and equipment to provide medical support for minimal care patients?

• A. Treatment squad
• B. Patient holding squad
• C. Area support squad
• D. Surgical squad

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The Patient Holding Squad is the module composed of practical nurses, medical specialists, and equipment to provide medical support for minimal care patients. The other choices are incorrect because a 'Treatment squad' would typically involve a broader range of medical care, an 'Area support squad' is more general and focuses on providing overall support in a specific area, and a 'Surgical squad' would be specifically focused on surgical procedures rather than general medical care for minimal care patients.

3. The nurse is caring for clients on a cardiac floor. Which client should the nurse assess first?

• A. The client with three (3) unifocal PVCs in a minute
• B. The client diagnosed with coronary artery disease who wants to ambulate
• C. The client diagnosed with mitral valve prolapse with an audible S3
• D. The client diagnosed with pericarditis who is in normal sinus rhythm

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because an audible S3 in a client with mitral valve prolapse could indicate heart failure, which requires immediate assessment. Choice A is less urgent as occasional unifocal PVCs are common. Choice B is important but can be addressed after the client with an audible S3. Choice D, a client with pericarditis in normal sinus rhythm, is stable compared to a client with potential heart failure symptoms.

4. What condition should a patient on long-term steroid therapy be monitored for?

• A. Hyperglycemia
• B. Hypothyroidism
• C. Hypertension
• D. Osteoporosis

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Correct! Patients on long-term steroid therapy should be monitored for osteoporosis. Prolonged use of steroids can lead to decreased bone density, increasing the risk of osteoporosis. Hyperglycemia is more commonly associated with steroid-induced diabetes rather than long-term steroid use. Hypothyroidism is not a typical complication of long-term steroid therapy. While steroids can contribute to hypertension, osteoporosis is a more prominent concern in this scenario.

5. Which of the following statements does NOT apply to a nursing plan of care?

• A. It contains short-term goals
• B. It is developed by the patient's physician
• C. It must be continually evaluated
• D. It contains long-range goals

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. A nursing plan of care is developed by the nursing staff, not the patient's physician. Choice A is correct as nursing plans of care typically include short-term goals to address immediate needs. Choice C is also accurate as nursing plans of care need to be continually evaluated and updated to ensure they are effective. Choice D is incorrect as nursing plans of care can contain long-range goals to provide a roadmap for the patient's overall care and recovery.

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