Nursing Elites

1. What is the best position for any procedure that involves vaginal and cervical examination?

• A. Dorsal recumbent
• B. Side lying
• C. Supine
• D. Lithotomy

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The lithotomy position is the most suitable position for procedures involving vaginal and cervical examination because it provides the best access to the vaginal and cervical regions. In this position, the patient lies on their back with their legs flexed and feet placed in stirrups, allowing for optimal visualization and access to the area. This position facilitates proper examination, diagnosis, and treatment when working in the gynecological field. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not provide the necessary exposure and access required for a thorough vaginal and cervical examination. Dorsal recumbent, side lying, and supine positions may limit visibility and hinder the examination process in such cases.

2. Students in the resident M6 Practical Nurse Course are expected to achieve entry-level competencies for which of the following?

• A. Medical-surgical nursing
• B. Obstetric and newborn nursing
• C. Pediatric nursing
• D. Trauma nursing

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Medical-surgical nursing. In the resident M6 Practical Nurse Course, students are expected to achieve entry-level competencies in medical-surgical nursing. This area of nursing focuses on caring for adult patients with a variety of medical conditions. Obstetric and newborn nursing (choice B), pediatric nursing (choice C), and trauma nursing (choice D) are specialized areas within nursing that are not typically covered in entry-level practical nurse courses, making them incorrect choices.

3. The client has failed to conceive after many attempts over a three-year time period and asks the nurse, “I have tried everything. What should I do now?” Which statement is the nurse’s best response?

• A. Assess the intravenous fluids for rate and volume
• B. Change the surgical dressing every day at the same time
• C. Monitor the client’s medication levels daily
• D. Monitor the percentage of each meal eaten

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The nurse's best response should focus on providing empathetic support and guiding the client to explore further options, such as fertility specialists or treatments. Assessing intravenous fluids for rate and volume is not relevant to the client's concern about infertility. Changing surgical dressing, monitoring medication levels, and tracking meal intake are all unrelated to the client's fertility issues.

4. A patient with hypothyroidism should be advised to consume more of which nutrient?

• A. Calcium
• B. Iodine
• C. Vitamin C
• D. Iron

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Iodine. Iodine is crucial for the production of thyroid hormones. A deficiency in iodine can lead to hypothyroidism. Calcium (Choice A) is important for bone health but is not directly related to thyroid function. Vitamin C (Choice C) is essential for the immune system and skin health but does not play a significant role in thyroid function. Iron (Choice D) is vital for red blood cell production and oxygen transport but is not specifically relevant to hypothyroidism.

5. Three major causes of atherosclerosis are:

• A. Hyperthyroidism, underweight, and poor appetite
• B. High blood cholesterol, high blood pressure, and cigarette smoking
• C. Constipation, peptic ulcer disease, and pancreatitis
• D. Kidney failure, edema, and sodium retention

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Atherosclerosis is primarily caused by high blood cholesterol, high blood pressure, and cigarette smoking. These factors contribute to the buildup of plaque in the arteries. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Hyperthyroidism, underweight, and poor appetite do not directly cause atherosclerosis. Similarly, constipation, peptic ulcer disease, pancreatitis, kidney failure, edema, and sodium retention are not among the primary causes of atherosclerosis.

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