the best position for any procedure that involves vaginal and cervical examination is
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI RN Custom Exams Set 5

1. What is the best position for any procedure that involves vaginal and cervical examination?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The lithotomy position is the most suitable position for procedures involving vaginal and cervical examination because it provides the best access to the vaginal and cervical regions. In this position, the patient lies on their back with their legs flexed and feet placed in stirrups, allowing for optimal visualization and access to the area. This position facilitates proper examination, diagnosis, and treatment when working in the gynecological field. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not provide the necessary exposure and access required for a thorough vaginal and cervical examination. Dorsal recumbent, side lying, and supine positions may limit visibility and hinder the examination process in such cases.

2. Which of the following drugs contribute to peptic ulcers?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs). NSAIDs are known to contribute to peptic ulcers by affecting the gastric mucosa. Choice A, Antacids, actually help to alleviate symptoms of peptic ulcers by neutralizing stomach acid. Choice B, Certain antibiotics, are used to treat H. pylori infections, a common cause of peptic ulcers. Choice C, Cholesterol-lowering medications, do not contribute to peptic ulcers.

3. The nurse is caring for a client who goes into ventricular tachycardia. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to assess the client for a pulse. In ventricular tachycardia, the priority is to determine if the client has a pulse. If there is no pulse, immediate initiation of CPR with chest compressions is required. Calling a code or continuing to monitor the client can delay life-saving interventions. Therefore, assessing for a pulse is the most crucial step in managing ventricular tachycardia.

4. Why are hospital patients at greater risk for drug-nutrient interactions than they used to be?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Hospitalized patients are at greater risk for drug-nutrient interactions because they are more acutely ill, often having multiple conditions and treatments that increase the risk of such interactions. Choice B is incorrect as hospital routines interfering with medication timing are not directly related to drug-nutrient interactions. Choice C is incorrect as the toxicity and side effects of drugs do not necessarily relate to interactions with nutrients. Choice D is incorrect as shared responsibility for monitoring does not directly contribute to the increased risk of drug-nutrient interactions in hospitalized patients.

5. The client has recently been diagnosed with irritable bowel syndrome (IBS). Which intervention should the nurse teach the client to reduce symptoms?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Choosing option B, explaining the need to decrease intake of flatus-forming foods, is the correct intervention to reduce IBS symptoms. Flatus-forming foods can worsen bloating and discomfort in individuals with IBS. Option A, instructing the client to avoid drinking fluids with meals, may be helpful for other conditions but is not a primary intervention for IBS. Option C, teaching perianal care, is not directly related to reducing IBS symptoms. Option D, encouraging the client to see a psychologist, may be beneficial for managing stress related to IBS but is not the initial intervention to reduce symptoms.

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