Nursing Elites

1. What is the best position for any procedure that involves vaginal and cervical examination?

• A. Dorsal recumbent
• B. Side lying
• C. Supine
• D. Lithotomy

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The lithotomy position is the most suitable position for procedures involving vaginal and cervical examination because it provides the best access to the vaginal and cervical regions. In this position, the patient lies on their back with their legs flexed and feet placed in stirrups, allowing for optimal visualization and access to the area. This position facilitates proper examination, diagnosis, and treatment when working in the gynecological field. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not provide the necessary exposure and access required for a thorough vaginal and cervical examination. Dorsal recumbent, side lying, and supine positions may limit visibility and hinder the examination process in such cases.

2. The nurse is teaching the client diagnosed with colon cancer who is scheduled for a colostomy the next day. Which behavior indicates the best method of applying adult teaching principles?

• A. The nurse repeats the information as indicated by the client’s questions
• B. The nurse teaches all the information needed by the client in one session
• C. The nurse uses a video to explain with medical terms to the client
• D. The nurse waits until the client asks questions about the surgery

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Choice A is the best method of applying adult teaching principles because repeating information and addressing the client’s questions as they arise is effective for reinforcing learning in adults. This approach allows for clarification of doubts and ensures that the client understands the information provided. Choice B is incorrect as teaching all the information in one session may overwhelm the client and hinder retention. Choice C is incorrect as using medical terms without ensuring the client's understanding may lead to confusion. Choice D is incorrect because waiting for the client to ask questions may result in missed opportunities to address important information proactively.

3. A patient with a history of gout should avoid which type of food?

• A. Red meat
• B. Chicken
• C. Fish
• D. Dairy

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A patient with a history of gout should avoid foods high in purines, which can exacerbate gout attacks. Red meat is particularly high in purines, so it is the type of food that should be avoided. Chicken and fish are lower in purines compared to red meat, making them better choices for individuals with gout. Dairy products are generally not associated with triggering gout attacks, so they can be consumed in moderation by patients with gout.

4. At the end of the Practical Nurse Course, the student receives a structured review to prepare the student for which of the following?

• A. The Army Nurse Course
• B. Out-processing
• C. The next duty assignment
• D. The practical nurse licensure examination

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The structured review at the end of the Practical Nurse Course is specifically designed to prepare students for the practical nurse licensure examination. This examination is crucial for students to obtain their practical nurse license and start their career as a licensed practical nurse. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because the focus at the end of the course is on preparing students for the licensure examination, not for Army Nurse Course, out-processing, or the next duty assignment.

5. Which outcome should the nurse identify for the client diagnosed with fluid volume excess?

• A. The client will void a minimum of 30 mL per hour
• B. The client will have elastic skin turgor
• C. The client will have no adventitious breath sounds
• D. The client will have a serum creatinine of 1.4 mg/dL

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Absence of adventitious breath sounds indicates that fluid is not accumulating in the lungs, a key outcome in managing fluid volume excess. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. A client with fluid volume excess may not necessarily void a minimum of 30 mL per hour, have elastic skin turgor, or have a specific serum creatinine level. The absence of adventitious breath sounds is a more direct indicator of managing fluid volume excess.

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