ATI RN
ATI RN Custom Exams Set 1
1. Warfarin (Coumadin) is an anticoagulant and interferes with the action of:
- A. Platelets
- B. Vitamin K
- C. Calcium
- D. Vitamin B12
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Vitamin K. Warfarin works by inhibiting the action of vitamin K, which is crucial for the synthesis of clotting factors in the blood. By interfering with vitamin K, warfarin decreases the production of these clotting factors, thereby prolonging the time it takes for blood to clot. This is why individuals on warfarin therapy need to monitor their vitamin K intake. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because warfarin does not directly interfere with platelets, calcium, or vitamin B12.
2. The client with chronic alcoholism has chronic pancreatitis and hypomagnesemia. What should the nurse assess when administering magnesium sulfate to the client?
- A. Deep tendon reflexes
- B. Arterial blood gases
- C. Skin turgor
- D. Capillary refill time
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: When administering magnesium sulfate to a client with chronic alcoholism, chronic pancreatitis, and hypomagnesemia, the nurse should assess deep tendon reflexes. Magnesium sulfate can depress the central nervous system and decrease deep tendon reflexes, so monitoring them is crucial. Assessing arterial blood gases, skin turgor, or capillary refill time is not directly related to the administration of magnesium sulfate in this scenario.
3. The nurse is told in report that the client has aortic stenosis. Which anatomical position should the nurse auscultate to assess the murmur?
- A. Second intercostal space, right sternal border
- B. Erb’s point
- C. Second intercostal space, left sternal border
- D. Fourth intercostal space, left sternal border
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct anatomical position for auscultating the murmur of aortic stenosis is the second intercostal space, right sternal border. This is where the aortic valve is best auscultated, and the murmur of aortic stenosis is heard most clearly. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as the murmur of aortic stenosis is best heard at the second intercostal space on the right side of the sternum.
4. Enteral feedings may be appropriate for patients with:
- A. Acute cholecystitis
- B. Hepatic encephalopathy
- C. Ulcerative colitis in remission
- D. Acute exacerbation of Crohn’s disease
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Enteral feedings are commonly used in patients with Crohn’s disease during acute exacerbations to provide adequate nutrition while resting the bowel. Acute cholecystitis, hepatic encephalopathy, and ulcerative colitis in remission wouldn't typically require enteral feedings as the primary nutritional support. Acute cholecystitis may necessitate fasting and intravenous fluids, hepatic encephalopathy may require dietary modifications but not enteral feedings, and patients with ulcerative colitis in remission usually have their nutritional needs met through a regular diet.
5. A patient with Crohn’s disease is experiencing diarrhea. Which dietary recommendation is appropriate?
- A. High-fiber diet
- B. Low-residue diet
- C. High-fat diet
- D. High-protein diet
Correct answer: B
Rationale: A low-residue diet is the appropriate dietary recommendation for a patient with Crohn’s disease experiencing diarrhea. This diet helps reduce bowel movements and manage diarrhea by limiting the intake of foods that are harder to digest. High-fiber diets (Choice A) may worsen diarrhea due to increased bulk in the stool. High-fat diets (Choice C) can be harder to digest and may exacerbate symptoms. High-protein diets (Choice D) are not specifically recommended for managing diarrhea in Crohn’s disease.
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