ATI RN
ATI RN Custom Exams Set 4
1. Who is at higher risk for drug-nutrient interactions?
- A. Infants
- B. People with diabetes
- C. Women of childbearing age
- D. Older men and women
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Older men and women are at higher risk for drug-nutrient interactions due to factors such as polypharmacy and physiological changes. Polypharmacy, common in older adults, increases the likelihood of interactions between drugs and nutrients. Physiological changes that occur with aging can affect how drugs and nutrients are absorbed, distributed, metabolized, and excreted in the body. Infants, people with diabetes, and women of childbearing age are not typically considered high-risk groups for drug-nutrient interactions compared to older adults.
2. A client is bedridden and appears to be frail and malnourished. Which nursing interventions will increase the risk of pressure injury?
- A. Applying moisturizer to dry areas of the skin
- B. Massaging the client’s reddened shoulders and heels
- C. Cleansing the skin routinely after soiling occurs
- D. Using a Hoyer lift for all transfers
Correct answer: Massaging the client’s reddened shoulders and heels
Rationale:
3. Which type of immunity is demonstrated by the transfer of a mother's immunoglobulin across the placenta to protect the child?
- A. Natural active immunity
- B. Natural passive immunity
- C. Artificial active immunity
- D. Artificial passive immunity
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The immunoglobulin passed from the mother to the child through the placenta is an example of natural passive immunity, making choice B the correct answer. This transfer gives the child temporary immunity to various diseases without their immune system having to work. On the other hand, natural active immunity (Choice A) occurs when the body produces its own antibodies in response to an antigen. Artificial active immunity (Choice C) is achieved through vaccinations, where the immune system is stimulated to produce antibodies against a specific disease. Artificial passive immunity (Choice D) is a temporary immunity that involves the transfer of pre-formed antibodies from another source.
4. The nurse is told in report that the client has aortic stenosis. Which anatomical position should the nurse auscultate to assess the murmur?
- A. Second intercostal space, right sternal border
- B. Erb’s point
- C. Second intercostal space, left sternal border
- D. Fourth intercostal space, left sternal border
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Second intercostal space, right sternal border. The aortic valve is best auscultated at the second intercostal space, right sternal border, where the murmur of aortic stenosis is heard most clearly. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they are not the recommended anatomical positions for auscultating the murmur of aortic stenosis.
5. A client is receiving treatment with capecitabine. Which of the following findings should the nurse monitor?
- A. Hyperglycemia
- B. Hypocalcemia
- C. Neutropenia
- D. Bradycardia
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The nurse should monitor the client for neutropenia when receiving capecitabine, as it is a common adverse effect caused by bone marrow suppression. Neutropenia increases the risk of infection, making it essential for the nurse to closely monitor the client's white blood cell count and assess for signs of infection during treatment. Hyperglycemia (Choice A) is not typically associated with capecitabine. Hypocalcemia (Choice B) and bradycardia (Choice D) are not commonly linked to capecitabine use. Therefore, monitoring for neutropenia is the priority in this scenario.