Nursing Elites

1. In which patient is alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency the likely cause of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease?

• A. A 30-year-old who has smoked for 3 years
• B. A 65-year-old man who drove a taxi most of his life
• C. A 70-year-old woman who smoked for 40 years
• D. A 50-year-old with exposure to secondhand smoke

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency is a genetic cause of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). It is more common in younger patients with a history of smoking at a younger age, like the 30-year-old who has smoked for 3 years. Choices B, C, and D are less likely to be associated with alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency as COPD in these cases is more likely due to smoking and environmental exposures.

2. What is a characteristic of coronary artery disease (CAD)?

• A. The build-up of infectious by-products in the lymph nodes
• B. Insufficient delivery of oxygenated blood to the myocardium
• C. Insufficient delivery of carbon dioxide to the lungs
• D. The build-up of bile in the stomach and gallbladder

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct characteristic of coronary artery disease (CAD) is the insufficient delivery of oxygenated blood to the myocardium. CAD is a condition where the coronary arteries become narrowed or blocked, leading to reduced blood flow to the heart muscle. This lack of oxygenated blood can result in chest pain, known as angina, and if a coronary artery becomes completely blocked, it can cause a heart attack. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Choice A refers to an issue related to the lymphatic system, choice C is about gas exchange in the lungs, and choice D describes a problem with bile accumulation in the digestive system, none of which are characteristics of CAD.

3. A patient is being educated about the use of raloxifene (Evista) for osteoporosis. What is the primary therapeutic action of this medication?

• A. It stimulates the formation of new bone.
• B. It decreases bone resorption and increases bone density.
• C. It increases the excretion of calcium through the kidneys.
• D. It increases calcium absorption in the intestines.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'It decreases bone resorption and increases bone density.' Raloxifene, a selective estrogen receptor modulator (SERM), works by decreasing bone resorption, which is the breakdown of bone, and increasing bone density. This action helps in preventing bone loss and maintaining bone strength. Choice A is incorrect because raloxifene does not stimulate the formation of new bone but rather prevents its breakdown. Choice C is incorrect as raloxifene does not increase the excretion of calcium but rather helps in maintaining calcium levels in the bones. Choice D is also incorrect as raloxifene does not directly increase calcium absorption in the intestines.

4. The nurse is closely following a patient who began treatment with testosterone several months earlier. When assessing the patient for potential adverse effects of treatment, the nurse should prioritize which of the following assessments?

• A. Skin inspection for developing lesions
• B. Lung function testing
• C. Assessment of serum calcium levels
• D. Assessment of arterial blood gases

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In patients receiving testosterone therapy, the nurse should prioritize assessing serum calcium levels. Testosterone therapy can lead to hypercalcemia, making the evaluation of serum calcium levels crucial. Skin inspection for developing lesions, lung function testing, and arterial blood gas assessment are not the priority assessments for potential adverse effects of testosterone therapy. Skin inspection may be relevant for dermatological side effects, lung function testing and arterial blood gas assessment are not directly related to the common side effects of testosterone therapy.

5. A 60-year-old man presents with painless hematuria. Which of the following should be the next step in the evaluation?

• A. Urinalysis
• B. Renal ultrasound
• C. Cystoscopy
• D. Intravenous pyelogram

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a 60-year-old man presenting with painless hematuria, the next step in the evaluation should be cystoscopy. Cystoscopy is recommended to assess the cause of hematuria, particularly to rule out bladder cancer, which is more common in older individuals. Urinalysis (Choice A) can provide initial information but may not definitively diagnose the underlying cause. Renal ultrasound (Choice B) and intravenous pyelogram (Choice D) are imaging studies that may be considered later in the evaluation process but are not the initial step for painless hematuria.

Similar Questions