a patient is taking medroxyprogesterone acetate provera for the treatment of endometriosis what should the nurse include in the patient teaching
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

Pathophysiology Practice Exam

1. A patient is taking medroxyprogesterone acetate (Provera) for the treatment of endometriosis. What should the nurse include in the patient teaching?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to take the medication at the same time each day to maintain consistent hormone levels. This is important for the effectiveness of medroxyprogesterone acetate. Choice A is incorrect because medroxyprogesterone acetate does not need to be taken with food. Choice B is irrelevant as sun exposure is not a concern with this medication. Choice D is incorrect as discontinuing the medication without consulting a healthcare provider can lead to adverse effects.

2. A nurse is teaching a patient about the use of testosterone gel for the treatment of hypogonadism. What important instruction should the nurse provide?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction is to apply testosterone gel after showering and allow it to dry completely before dressing. This helps prevent the transfer of the gel to others and ensures proper absorption. Choice B is incorrect because the gel should not be applied to the genitals. Choice C is incorrect as there is no specific benefit to applying the gel before bedtime. Choice D is incorrect as the gel should not be applied to the face and neck for the treatment of hypogonadism.

3. A nursing student is learning about the effects of bactericidal agents. How does rifampin (Rifadin) achieve a therapeutic action against both intracellular and extracellular tuberculosis organisms?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Rifampin (Rifadin) achieves a therapeutic action against both intracellular and extracellular tuberculosis organisms by inhibiting the synthesis of RNA. This action interferes with bacterial RNA synthesis, leading to the suppression of protein synthesis in the bacteria, ultimately causing their death. Option A is incorrect because rifampin is primarily metabolized in the liver, but this is not how it exerts its bactericidal effects. Option B is incorrect as rifampin does not bind to acetylcholine. Option D is also incorrect as rifampin does not cause phagocytosis.

4. In a patient with a subconjunctival hemorrhage due to allergic rhinitis, which statement is accurate?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a patient with a subconjunctival hemorrhage secondary to allergic rhinitis, the hemorrhage is typically self-limiting and will resolve on its own within 2 weeks without the need for specific treatment. Referring the patient for immediate ophthalmologic examination is not necessary unless there are other concerning symptoms. Starting oral antihistamines may help manage the underlying allergic rhinitis but is not specifically indicated for the hemorrhage. Topical corticosteroids are not routinely prescribed for subconjunctival hemorrhage as they may have limited benefit and could potentially cause complications.

5. A patient is prescribed sildenafil (Viagra) for erectile dysfunction. What key contraindication should the nurse review with the patient?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Use of nitrates. Sildenafil (Viagra) is contraindicated in patients taking nitrates due to the risk of severe hypotension. Nitrates and sildenafil both cause vasodilation, so their combined use can lead to a dangerous drop in blood pressure. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because while a history of hypertension or use of antihypertensive medications may influence treatment decisions, they are not the key contraindication specifically related to sildenafil use.

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