Nursing Elites

1. A patient with hypothyroidism should be advised to consume more of which nutrient?

• A. Calcium
• B. Iodine
• C. Vitamin C
• D. Iron

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Iodine. Iodine is crucial for the production of thyroid hormones. A deficiency in iodine can lead to hypothyroidism. Calcium (Choice A) is important for bone health but is not directly related to thyroid function. Vitamin C (Choice C) is essential for the immune system and skin health but does not play a significant role in thyroid function. Iron (Choice D) is vital for red blood cell production and oxygen transport but is not specifically relevant to hypothyroidism.

2. Which type of anemia is associated with chronic kidney disease?

• A. Iron-deficiency anemia
• B. Vitamin B12 deficiency anemia
• C. Aplastic anemia
• D. Erythropoietin deficiency anemia

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, Erythropoietin deficiency anemia. Chronic kidney disease often leads to anemia due to decreased production of erythropoietin. This hormone, produced by the kidneys, stimulates the bone marrow to produce red blood cells. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Iron-deficiency anemia is characterized by low iron levels, vitamin B12 deficiency anemia by inadequate vitamin B12, and aplastic anemia by bone marrow failure.

3. Which medication should a patient with a history of peptic ulcer disease avoid?

• A. Acetaminophen
• B. Antacids
• C. Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs
• D. Antihistamines

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Patients with a history of peptic ulcer disease should avoid Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) because they can worsen peptic ulcers due to their effects on the stomach lining. Acetaminophen (Choice A) is a safer alternative for pain relief in such patients as it does not have the same ulcerogenic effects. Antacids (Choice B) can actually help alleviate symptoms by neutralizing stomach acid and are generally safe to use. Antihistamines (Choice D) are not known to exacerbate peptic ulcers and can be used safely for conditions like allergies.

4. In assessing the client's chest, which position best shows chest expansion as well as its movements?

• A. Sitting
• B. Prone
• C. Sidelying
• D. Supine

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The position that best shows chest expansion as well as its movements is when the client is sitting. When the client is seated, their chest is in an optimal position for observing the full range of chest expansion during breathing. This position allows for easy visualization of chest movements and expansion as the client breathes in and out, providing a comprehensive assessment of respiratory function. Choice B (Prone) and Choice D (Supine) involve positions where the chest's movements and expansion are less visible and may not provide an accurate representation of respiratory function. Choice C (Sidelying) can also limit the visibility of chest expansion compared to the sitting position.

5. After undergoing a pericardiocentesis, which interventions should the nurse implement?

• A. Monitor vital signs every 15 minutes for the first hour
• B. Evaluate the client’s cardiac rhythm
• C. Record the amount of fluid removed as output
• D. All of the above

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Following a pericardiocentesis, it is crucial for the nurse to monitor vital signs regularly, evaluate cardiac rhythm, and record the amount of fluid removed as output to detect any complications promptly. These interventions help in ensuring the client's safety and detecting any potential issues early. Therefore, selecting 'All of the above' (Choice D) is the correct answer as it encompasses all the essential interventions required post-pericardiocentesis. Choices A, B, and C are necessary actions to provide comprehensive care and monitor the client effectively.

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