Nursing Elites

1. A patient with hypothyroidism should be advised to consume more of which nutrient?

• A. Calcium
• B. Iodine
• C. Vitamin C
• D. Iron

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Iodine. Iodine is crucial for the production of thyroid hormones. A deficiency in iodine can lead to hypothyroidism. Calcium (Choice A) is important for bone health but is not directly related to thyroid function. Vitamin C (Choice C) is essential for the immune system and skin health but does not play a significant role in thyroid function. Iron (Choice D) is vital for red blood cell production and oxygen transport but is not specifically relevant to hypothyroidism.

2. Which type of diet is recommended for patients with diverticulitis during an acute flare-up?

• A. High-fiber
• B. Low-residue
• C. Low-fat
• D. High-protein

Correct answer: B

Rationale: During an acute flare-up of diverticulitis, a low-residue diet is recommended. This diet helps reduce bowel movements and minimizes irritants in the colon, which can help alleviate symptoms and promote healing. High-fiber diets, like choice A, are typically recommended for diverticulosis prevention but may exacerbate symptoms during a flare-up due to increased bulk in the stool. Low-fat (choice C) and high-protein (choice D) diets are not specifically indicated for diverticulitis flare-ups.

3. Which of the following is a primary intervention for managing hyperphosphatemia?

• A. Increasing calcium intake
• B. Increasing phosphorus intake
• C. Decreasing calcium intake
• D. Administering phosphate binders

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, administering phosphate binders. Phosphate binders are a primary intervention for managing hyperphosphatemia as they help by binding phosphorus in the gut, preventing its absorption. Increasing calcium intake (choice A) or phosphorus intake (choice B) would exacerbate hyperphosphatemia. Decreasing calcium intake (choice C) is not a primary intervention for managing high phosphorus levels.

4. What is established when threats to air resources prevent evacuation by air from forward units?

• A. Area support medical battalions
• B. TOE units
• C. Ambulance exchange points
• D. Field hospitals

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Ambulance exchange points are set up when threats to air resources make it impossible to evacuate by air from forward units. These points serve as locations where patients can be transferred from ambulances to aircraft for further evacuation. Area support medical battalions (Choice A) are not directly related to this scenario, as they provide medical support to larger areas. TOE units (Choice B) refer to tables of organization and equipment, not specific to this situation. Field hospitals (Choice D) are more permanent facilities for treating patients and are not specifically for transferring patients under threats to air resources.

5. When does short-bowel syndrome usually occur?

• A. The longitudinal muscles of the intestine contract
• B. More than 50% of the small intestine is surgically removed
• C. More than 50% of the large intestine is surgically removed
• D. Transit time is decreased due to infection or drugs

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Short-bowel syndrome typically occurs when more than 50% of the small intestine is surgically removed. This condition leads to malabsorption issues due to the reduced length of the intestine for absorption. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because short-bowel syndrome specifically relates to the insufficient length of the small intestine, not the contraction of longitudinal muscles, surgical removal of the large intestine, or decreased transit time due to infection or drugs.

Similar Questions