ATI RN
ATI RN Custom Exams Set 3
1. The nurse supervises care of a client who is receiving enteral feeding via a nasogastric tube. The nurse determines that care is appropriate if which of the following is observed? (Select all that apply)
- A. The nursing assistant aspirates and measures the amount of the gastric aspirate
- B. The nursing assistant elevates the head of the client’s bed 30 degrees
- C. The nursing assistant warms the formula to room temperature
- D. B, C
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Elevating the head of the bed to 30 degrees reduces the risk of aspiration by promoting proper digestion and preventing reflux. Warming the formula to room temperature is essential to prevent discomfort and complications. Aspirating and measuring the gastric aspirate is not a recommended nursing action for monitoring enteral feeding via a nasogastric tube, as it can introduce the risk of introducing contaminants into the feeding tube. Therefore, choices A and B are incorrect, making choice D the correct answer.
2. During a physical assessment of a newborn, what finding should the nurse prioritize reporting?
- A. Head circumference of 40 cm
- B. Chest circumference of 32 cm
- C. Acrocyanosis and edema of the scalp
- D. Heart rate of 160 bpm and respirations of 40/min
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because a head circumference of 40 cm is unusually large for a newborn, which may indicate hydrocephalus or other abnormalities. Reporting this finding is crucial for further evaluation and intervention. Choices B, C, and D are not as concerning during a newborn physical assessment. A chest circumference of 32 cm is within the normal range for a newborn. Acrocyanosis and edema of the scalp are common findings in newborns and usually resolve without intervention. While a heart rate of 160 bpm and respirations of 40/min should be monitored, they are not as critical as an unusually large head circumference.
3. When is Aspirin most effective when taken?
- A. On an empty stomach with cold water
- B. On a full stomach after a meal
- C. With a glass of fruit juice
- D. First thing in the morning
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Aspirin is best absorbed on an empty stomach to maximize its effectiveness. Taking it with cold water helps to enhance absorption. Choice B is incorrect as taking aspirin on a full stomach may reduce its absorption. Choice C is incorrect as fruit juice can sometimes interact with medications. Choice D is incorrect as taking aspirin first thing in the morning may not optimize its absorption.
4. In assessing the client's chest, which position best shows chest expansion as well as its movements?
- A. Sitting
- B. Prone
- C. Sidelying
- D. Supine
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Sitting. When the client is seated, their chest is in an optimal position for observing the full range of chest expansion during breathing. This position allows for easy visualization of chest movements and expansion as the client breathes in and out, providing a comprehensive assessment of respiratory function. Choice B, Prone, is incorrect as lying face down would not provide a clear view of chest expansion. Choice C, Sidelying, is also incorrect as this position may limit the visibility of chest movements. Choice D, Supine, is not the best position for assessing chest expansion as it may not offer a clear observation of chest movements during breathing.
5. Which electrolyte imbalance is a potential side effect of diuretics?
- A. Hyperkalemia
- B. Hypercalcemia
- C. Hypomagnesemia
- D. Hypokalemia
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, Hypokalemia. Diuretics commonly lead to hypokalemia, which is low potassium levels in the body. Hyperkalemia (choice A) is the opposite, indicating high potassium levels. Hypercalcemia (choice B) refers to elevated calcium levels, not typically associated with diuretics. Hypomagnesemia (choice C) is low magnesium levels and can also be a consequence of diuretic use, but potassium imbalance is more common.
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