a nurse is teaching a client who has a prescription for a long term use of oral prednisone for chronic asthma the nurse should instruct the client to
Logo

Nursing Elites

ATI RN

Proctored Pharmacology ATI

1. A client is being taught by a nurse about long-term use of oral prednisone for chronic asthma. The nurse should instruct the client to monitor for which of the following adverse effects?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Weight gain is a common adverse effect of long-term prednisone use. Prednisone, a corticosteroid medication, can cause fluid retention and increased appetite, leading to weight gain. Nervousness (choice B) is more commonly associated with stimulant medications or excessive caffeine intake. Bradycardia (choice C) refers to a slow heart rate and is not a typical adverse effect of prednisone. Constipation (choice D) is not a common side effect of prednisone; in fact, prednisone is more likely to cause gastrointestinal issues such as increased appetite and weight gain.

2. What is the therapeutic use of Alprazolam?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The therapeutic use of Alprazolam is for the relief of anxiety. Alprazolam belongs to a class of medications known as benzodiazepines, which are commonly prescribed to manage anxiety disorders and panic attacks. It works by enhancing the effects of a natural chemical in the body (GABA) to produce a calming effect on the brain and nerves, thereby alleviating symptoms of anxiety.

3. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer Haloperidol 2 mg PO every 12 hr. The available dosage is haloperidol 1 mg/tablet. How many tablets should the healthcare professional administer?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: To determine the number of tablets needed, divide the desired dose by the dose per tablet. In this case, (2 mg / 1 mg/tablet) = 2 tablets required to administer the prescribed dose of Haloperidol.

4. A client is receiving moderate sedation with Diazepam IV and is oversedated. Which of the following medications should the nurse anticipate administering to this client?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Flumazenil is a competitive benzodiazepine antagonist that can reverse the sedative effects of benzodiazepines like Diazepam. In cases of oversedation, administering Flumazenil can help counteract the excessive sedation and other effects of Diazepam, thereby promoting the client's recovery and preventing potential complications. Ketamine (Choice A) is a dissociative anesthetic and not used to reverse benzodiazepine sedation. Naltrexone (Choice B) is an opioid receptor antagonist, not indicated for benzodiazepine oversedation. Fluvoxamine (Choice D) is an antidepressant and not used to reverse the sedative effects of benzodiazepines.

5. A client has a new prescription for Digoxin to treat heart failure. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client prescribed Digoxin for heart failure is to contact the provider if the heart rate is less than 60/min. Digoxin can affect heart rate, and a heart rate below 60/min may indicate toxicity, requiring prompt medical attention. Checking the pulse rate accurately and seeking medical advice are essential components of safe medication management. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Choice B is related to checking the pulse rate but does not address the critical action of contacting the provider if it is below 60/min. Increasing intake of sodium (Choice C) is inappropriate as high sodium levels can worsen heart failure. Taking Digoxin with food if nausea occurs (Choice D) does not address a critical aspect of Digoxin administration related to heart rate monitoring.

Similar Questions

When teaching a client who has a new prescription for Dextromethorphan to suppress a cough, which adverse effect should the nurse instruct the client to monitor for?
A client has a new prescription for Levothyroxine to treat hypothyroidism. Which of the following instructions should be included in the teaching?
A client has an infection and a prescription for gentamicin intermittent IV bolus every 8 hr. A peak and trough is required with the next dose. Which of the following actions should be taken to obtain an accurate gentamicin serum level?
A client is receiving Morphine IV for pain management. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
A client with streptococcal pneumonia is receiving penicillin G by intermittent IV bolus. 10 minutes into the infusion of the third dose, the client reports itching at the IV site, dizziness, and shortness of breath. What should the nurse do first?

Access More Features

ATI RN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days

  • 5,000 Questions with answers
  • All ATI courses Coverage
  • 30 days access

ATI RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days

  • 5,000 Questions with answers
  • All ATI courses Coverage
  • 30 days access

Other Courses