ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam
1. A client is being educated by a healthcare provider about Terbutaline. Which of the following statements by the client indicates understanding of the teaching?
- A. This medication will stop my contractions.
- B. This medication will prevent vaginal bleeding.
- C. This medication will promote blood flow to my baby.
- D. This medication will increase my prostaglandin production.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Terbutaline works by blocking beta2-adrenergic receptors, leading to uterine smooth muscle relaxation and stopping contractions. It is commonly used to delay preterm labor. Choice B is incorrect because Terbutaline is not used to prevent vaginal bleeding. Choice C is incorrect because Terbutaline's primary action is not related to promoting blood flow to the baby. Choice D is incorrect because Terbutaline does not increase prostaglandin production; instead, it works by blocking beta2-adrenergic receptors.
2. A healthcare provider is preparing to administer an Opioid agonist to a client who has acute pain. Which of the following complications should the provider monitor?
- A. Urinary retention
- B. Tachypnea
- C. Hypertension
- D. Irritating cough
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is urinary retention. Opioid agonists like morphine can suppress the awareness of bladder fullness, leading to urinary retention. This complication can result in significant discomfort and potential urinary tract issues if not promptly addressed. Tachypnea (increased respiratory rate) is a common side effect of opioids but is not a specific complication related to urinary retention. Hypertension is not typically associated with opioid agonists and is more commonly seen with opioid antagonists. An irritating cough is not a known complication of opioid agonists and is not directly related to the effect opioids have on the urinary system.
3. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer a transfusion of 300 mL of pooled platelets for a client who has severe Thrombocytopenia. How long should the healthcare professional plan to administer the transfusion over?
- A. Within 30 min/unit
- B. Within 60 min/unit
- C. Within 2 hr/unit
- D. Within 4 hr/unit
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Platelets are fragile components that must be administered quickly to maintain their effectiveness and minimize the risk of clumping. The recommended administration time for platelets is within 15 to 30 minutes per unit. This rapid administration helps ensure the platelets remain viable and functional for the client receiving the transfusion. Therefore, the correct answer is to administer the transfusion within 30 minutes per unit. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they exceed the recommended administration time for platelets, which could compromise their efficacy and pose risks to the client.
4. A client has a new prescription for Atenolol. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. I should monitor my blood pressure regularly.
- B. I will take this medication at bedtime.
- C. I will take this medication with a high-fat meal.
- D. I should increase my intake of potassium-rich foods.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Clients taking Atenolol, a beta-blocker, should monitor their blood pressure regularly to ensure the medication is effectively managing their condition. Monitoring blood pressure helps in assessing the drug's effectiveness and identifying any potential side effects that may influence blood pressure levels. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because taking Atenolol at bedtime, with a high-fat meal, or increasing potassium-rich foods intake are not recommended actions associated with this medication and do not demonstrate an understanding of the teaching.
5. While providing an Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor, the patient asks what the action of the drug is. As a healthcare provider, you explain that the action of an ACE inhibitor is:
- A. To lower blood pressure by blocking the conversion of angiotensin I to vasoconstrictor angiotensin II
- B. To inhibit reabsorption of sodium back into the body, ultimately increasing urine output and lowering blood pressure
- C. To decrease heart rate and blood pressure by competing with Beta1 and Beta2 receptors in the heart and lungs
- D. To lower blood glucose by stimulating the release of insulin
Correct answer: A
Rationale: ACE inhibitors lower blood pressure by blocking the conversion of angiotensin I to vasoconstrictor angiotensin II. Angiotensin II is a potent vasoconstrictor, and by inhibiting its formation, ACE inhibitors help dilate blood vessels, reduce blood pressure, and decrease the workload on the heart. Choice B is incorrect as it describes the mechanism of action of diuretics, not ACE inhibitors. Choice C is incorrect as it refers to the action of beta-blockers, not ACE inhibitors. Choice D is incorrect as it describes the mechanism of action of antidiabetic medications, not ACE inhibitors.
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