Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer furosemide 80 mg PO daily. The available furosemide oral solution is 10 mg/1 mL. How many mL should the healthcare professional administer?

• A. 8 mL
• B. 10 mL
• C. 6 mL
• D. 12 mL

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To determine the volume to administer, divide the desired dose by the available concentration. In this case, 80 mg divided by 10 mg/mL equals 8 mL. Therefore, the healthcare professional should administer 8 mL of furosemide oral solution. Choice B, 10 mL, is incorrect as it does not reflect the accurate calculation. Choices C and D, 6 mL and 12 mL respectively, are also incorrect as they do not match the correct calculation based on the provided concentration and dose.

2. Which of the following is not a side effect of the vasodilator Nifedipine?

• A. Nausea
• B. Flushed appearance
• C. Vertigo
• D. Sexual dysfunction

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Sexual dysfunction is not a common side effect of vasodilators such as Nifedipine. Nausea, flushed appearance, and vertigo are more commonly reported side effects associated with this medication. It's essential for healthcare providers to be aware of the potential side effects to monitor and manage them effectively in patients prescribed with Nifedipine.

3. A client with schizophrenia is being taught strategies to cope with anticholinergic effects of Fluphenazine. Which of the following should the nurse suggest to the client to minimize anticholinergic effects?

• A. Take the medication in the morning to prevent insomnia.
• B. Chew sugarless gum to moisten the mouth.
• C. Use cooling measures to decrease fever.
• D. Take an antacid to relieve nausea.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Chewing sugarless gum is an effective strategy to manage dry mouth, a common anticholinergic effect of Fluphenazine. By stimulating saliva production, sugarless gum helps to moisten the mouth and alleviate the discomfort associated with dryness. This intervention can improve the client's oral health and overall comfort while taking the medication. The other options are not directly related to alleviating anticholinergic effects. Taking the medication in the morning to prevent insomnia does not address anticholinergic effects specifically. Using cooling measures to decrease fever is not relevant to managing dry mouth caused by anticholinergic effects. Taking an antacid to relieve nausea is unrelated to managing dry mouth, which is the focus of anticholinergic effects.

4. A client with a history of migraine headaches is starting prophylaxis therapy with Propranolol. Which of the following findings in the client history should be reported to the provider by the nurse?

• A. The client had a prior myocardial infarction.
• B. The client takes warfarin for atrial fibrillation.
• C. The client takes an SSRI for depression.
• D. An ECG indicates a first-degree heart block.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Propranolol is contraindicated in clients with a first-degree heart block due to its negative chronotropic properties that can further slow the heart rate. This can worsen conduction through the atrioventricular node, potentially leading to heart block progression. Therefore, the nurse should report the finding of a first-degree heart block to the provider before initiating Propranolol therapy. Choices A, B, and C are not contraindications for Propranolol therapy. A prior myocardial infarction, taking warfarin for atrial fibrillation, or using an SSRI for depression do not directly impact the initiation of Propranolol therapy in a client with a history of migraine headaches.

5. During a unit of whole blood transfusion, a client develops a cough, shortness of breath, elevated blood pressure, and distended neck veins. The healthcare professional should anticipate a prescription for which of the following medications?

• A. Epinephrine
• B. Lorazepam
• C. Furosemide
• D. Diphenhydramine

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In the scenario described, the client is exhibiting signs of fluid overload, which can occur during blood transfusion. Furosemide, a loop diuretic, is commonly prescribed in such situations to help relieve manifestations of circulatory overload by promoting diuresis and reducing fluid volume. Therefore, the correct choice is C - Furosemide. Epinephrine (Choice A) is not indicated for fluid overload but for severe allergic reactions. Lorazepam (Choice B) is a benzodiazepine used for anxiety or sedation, not for fluid overload. Diphenhydramine (Choice D) is an antihistamine often used for allergic reactions, not for fluid overload.

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